Find a group G that has subgroups isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$ for all natural numbers n $geq$ 2

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I was thinking of using the theorem: " If G is finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ " But cannot find an appropriate group.



Any help is appreciated, thanks.



EDIT: The correct version of the theorem is "If G is cyclic AND finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ "







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    up vote
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    down vote

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    I was thinking of using the theorem: " If G is finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ " But cannot find an appropriate group.



    Any help is appreciated, thanks.



    EDIT: The correct version of the theorem is "If G is cyclic AND finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ "







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I was thinking of using the theorem: " If G is finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ " But cannot find an appropriate group.



      Any help is appreciated, thanks.



      EDIT: The correct version of the theorem is "If G is cyclic AND finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ "







      share|cite|improve this question













      I was thinking of using the theorem: " If G is finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ " But cannot find an appropriate group.



      Any help is appreciated, thanks.



      EDIT: The correct version of the theorem is "If G is cyclic AND finite of order n, then $G cong mathbbZ_n$ "









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 22 at 18:23
























      asked Jul 22 at 18:04









      Wallace

      625




      625




















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          6
          down vote



          accepted










          An easy example is the multiplicative group of the complex numbers. For each $n$ it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order $n$, consisting of the solutions of $z^n-1=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:17










          • I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:26










          • All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 22 at 18:27










          • Perfect! Thank you!
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:28

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          It is not true that every finite group of order $n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_n$.



          However, you can take $G = displaystyle prod_n ge 2 Bbb Z_n$, where $prod$ means direct product.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:18











          • en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
            – Kenny Lau
            Jul 22 at 18:19










          • @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
            – Dietrich Burde
            Jul 22 at 18:20











          • @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:22










          • The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
            – steven gregory
            Jul 22 at 23:38


















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Let $mathbb S = mathbb R/1$, the set of all real numbers modulo $1$, i.e. the set of all sets of the form $[x] = x + n $. Addition on $mathbb S$ is defined by $[x]+[y] =[x+y]$. Then $mathbb S$ is an abelian group with respect to addition. For any positive integer, $n$, the order of the group generated by $[frac 1n]$ is $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            It's a bit silly, but you can use Cayley's theorem that states that every finite group is embedded in some symmetric group $S_n$, and then
            $$
            G = prod_n in mathbb N S_n
            $$
            will be a group that contains any finite group as a subgroup. This also is true for the symmetric group of the natural numbers $S(mathbb N)$, since it contains all $S_n$ as subgroups.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
              – Kenny Lau
              Jul 23 at 1:53










            • Yes, then we'd even be countable!
              – AlgebraicsAnonymous
              Jul 28 at 7:06










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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes








            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            6
            down vote



            accepted










            An easy example is the multiplicative group of the complex numbers. For each $n$ it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order $n$, consisting of the solutions of $z^n-1=0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:17










            • I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:26










            • All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Jul 22 at 18:27










            • Perfect! Thank you!
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:28














            up vote
            6
            down vote



            accepted










            An easy example is the multiplicative group of the complex numbers. For each $n$ it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order $n$, consisting of the solutions of $z^n-1=0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:17










            • I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:26










            • All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Jul 22 at 18:27










            • Perfect! Thank you!
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:28












            up vote
            6
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            6
            down vote



            accepted






            An easy example is the multiplicative group of the complex numbers. For each $n$ it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order $n$, consisting of the solutions of $z^n-1=0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer













            An easy example is the multiplicative group of the complex numbers. For each $n$ it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order $n$, consisting of the solutions of $z^n-1=0$.







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 22 at 18:08









            Lord Shark the Unknown

            85.2k950111




            85.2k950111











            • Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:17










            • I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:26










            • All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Jul 22 at 18:27










            • Perfect! Thank you!
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:28
















            • Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:17










            • I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:26










            • All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Jul 22 at 18:27










            • Perfect! Thank you!
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:28















            Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:17




            Could you elaborate on why for each n it has exactly one cyclic subgroup of order n?
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:17












            I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:26




            I think I'm starting to see why this is true, my knowledge on complex analysis is a bit groggy as of now.
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:26












            All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 22 at 18:27




            All the solutions of $z^n=1$ are powers of $exp(2pi i/n)$. @Wallace
            – Lord Shark the Unknown
            Jul 22 at 18:27












            Perfect! Thank you!
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:28




            Perfect! Thank you!
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:28










            up vote
            3
            down vote













            It is not true that every finite group of order $n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_n$.



            However, you can take $G = displaystyle prod_n ge 2 Bbb Z_n$, where $prod$ means direct product.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:18











            • en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
              – Kenny Lau
              Jul 22 at 18:19










            • @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
              – Dietrich Burde
              Jul 22 at 18:20











            • @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:22










            • The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
              – steven gregory
              Jul 22 at 23:38















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            It is not true that every finite group of order $n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_n$.



            However, you can take $G = displaystyle prod_n ge 2 Bbb Z_n$, where $prod$ means direct product.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:18











            • en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
              – Kenny Lau
              Jul 22 at 18:19










            • @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
              – Dietrich Burde
              Jul 22 at 18:20











            • @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:22










            • The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
              – steven gregory
              Jul 22 at 23:38













            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            It is not true that every finite group of order $n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_n$.



            However, you can take $G = displaystyle prod_n ge 2 Bbb Z_n$, where $prod$ means direct product.






            share|cite|improve this answer













            It is not true that every finite group of order $n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_n$.



            However, you can take $G = displaystyle prod_n ge 2 Bbb Z_n$, where $prod$ means direct product.







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 22 at 18:08









            Kenny Lau

            18.7k2157




            18.7k2157











            • I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:18











            • en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
              – Kenny Lau
              Jul 22 at 18:19










            • @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
              – Dietrich Burde
              Jul 22 at 18:20











            • @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:22










            • The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
              – steven gregory
              Jul 22 at 23:38

















            • I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:18











            • en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
              – Kenny Lau
              Jul 22 at 18:19










            • @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
              – Dietrich Burde
              Jul 22 at 18:20











            • @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
              – Wallace
              Jul 22 at 18:22










            • The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
              – steven gregory
              Jul 22 at 23:38
















            I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:18





            I'm actually interested about your first statement. Could you provide me a counter example of a group with order n that is not isomorphic to $mathbbZ_n$?
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:18













            en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
            – Kenny Lau
            Jul 22 at 18:19




            en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups
            – Kenny Lau
            Jul 22 at 18:19












            @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
            – Dietrich Burde
            Jul 22 at 18:20





            @Wallace You know that there are non-abelian groups. They give enough counterexamples...
            – Dietrich Burde
            Jul 22 at 18:20













            @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:22




            @KennyLau, thank you for providing me with this. It appears I have misread the theorem. It requires G to be cyclic! Thank you for this clarification. I will edit my original post
            – Wallace
            Jul 22 at 18:22












            The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
            – steven gregory
            Jul 22 at 23:38





            The order of the group $mathbb Z_2 times mathbb Z_2$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb Z_4$
            – steven gregory
            Jul 22 at 23:38











            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Let $mathbb S = mathbb R/1$, the set of all real numbers modulo $1$, i.e. the set of all sets of the form $[x] = x + n $. Addition on $mathbb S$ is defined by $[x]+[y] =[x+y]$. Then $mathbb S$ is an abelian group with respect to addition. For any positive integer, $n$, the order of the group generated by $[frac 1n]$ is $n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Let $mathbb S = mathbb R/1$, the set of all real numbers modulo $1$, i.e. the set of all sets of the form $[x] = x + n $. Addition on $mathbb S$ is defined by $[x]+[y] =[x+y]$. Then $mathbb S$ is an abelian group with respect to addition. For any positive integer, $n$, the order of the group generated by $[frac 1n]$ is $n$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                2
                down vote










                up vote
                2
                down vote









                Let $mathbb S = mathbb R/1$, the set of all real numbers modulo $1$, i.e. the set of all sets of the form $[x] = x + n $. Addition on $mathbb S$ is defined by $[x]+[y] =[x+y]$. Then $mathbb S$ is an abelian group with respect to addition. For any positive integer, $n$, the order of the group generated by $[frac 1n]$ is $n$.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                Let $mathbb S = mathbb R/1$, the set of all real numbers modulo $1$, i.e. the set of all sets of the form $[x] = x + n $. Addition on $mathbb S$ is defined by $[x]+[y] =[x+y]$. Then $mathbb S$ is an abelian group with respect to addition. For any positive integer, $n$, the order of the group generated by $[frac 1n]$ is $n$.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 22 at 18:23









                steven gregory

                16.4k22055




                16.4k22055




















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    It's a bit silly, but you can use Cayley's theorem that states that every finite group is embedded in some symmetric group $S_n$, and then
                    $$
                    G = prod_n in mathbb N S_n
                    $$
                    will be a group that contains any finite group as a subgroup. This also is true for the symmetric group of the natural numbers $S(mathbb N)$, since it contains all $S_n$ as subgroups.






                    share|cite|improve this answer

















                    • 1




                      I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
                      – Kenny Lau
                      Jul 23 at 1:53










                    • Yes, then we'd even be countable!
                      – AlgebraicsAnonymous
                      Jul 28 at 7:06














                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    It's a bit silly, but you can use Cayley's theorem that states that every finite group is embedded in some symmetric group $S_n$, and then
                    $$
                    G = prod_n in mathbb N S_n
                    $$
                    will be a group that contains any finite group as a subgroup. This also is true for the symmetric group of the natural numbers $S(mathbb N)$, since it contains all $S_n$ as subgroups.






                    share|cite|improve this answer

















                    • 1




                      I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
                      – Kenny Lau
                      Jul 23 at 1:53










                    • Yes, then we'd even be countable!
                      – AlgebraicsAnonymous
                      Jul 28 at 7:06












                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    It's a bit silly, but you can use Cayley's theorem that states that every finite group is embedded in some symmetric group $S_n$, and then
                    $$
                    G = prod_n in mathbb N S_n
                    $$
                    will be a group that contains any finite group as a subgroup. This also is true for the symmetric group of the natural numbers $S(mathbb N)$, since it contains all $S_n$ as subgroups.






                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    It's a bit silly, but you can use Cayley's theorem that states that every finite group is embedded in some symmetric group $S_n$, and then
                    $$
                    G = prod_n in mathbb N S_n
                    $$
                    will be a group that contains any finite group as a subgroup. This also is true for the symmetric group of the natural numbers $S(mathbb N)$, since it contains all $S_n$ as subgroups.







                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    answered Jul 22 at 18:43









                    AlgebraicsAnonymous

                    69111




                    69111







                    • 1




                      I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
                      – Kenny Lau
                      Jul 23 at 1:53










                    • Yes, then we'd even be countable!
                      – AlgebraicsAnonymous
                      Jul 28 at 7:06












                    • 1




                      I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
                      – Kenny Lau
                      Jul 23 at 1:53










                    • Yes, then we'd even be countable!
                      – AlgebraicsAnonymous
                      Jul 28 at 7:06







                    1




                    1




                    I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
                    – Kenny Lau
                    Jul 23 at 1:53




                    I think you can take the subgroup of $G$ consisting of elements with finite support.
                    – Kenny Lau
                    Jul 23 at 1:53












                    Yes, then we'd even be countable!
                    – AlgebraicsAnonymous
                    Jul 28 at 7:06




                    Yes, then we'd even be countable!
                    – AlgebraicsAnonymous
                    Jul 28 at 7:06












                     

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