Find non convergent Cauchy sequence

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Let $B$ be the set of all bounded real sequences. Prove that $(B,rho)$, where $rho(x,y):=sup_ndfracx_n-y_nn$ is a non complete metric space.



I could show that this is a metric space and I also know that with the metric $d(x,y):=sup_n|x_n-y_n|$ this space is complete. How do I prove that it is not complete with $rho$?







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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $B$ be the set of all bounded real sequences. Prove that $(B,rho)$, where $rho(x,y):=sup_ndfracx_n-y_nn$ is a non complete metric space.



    I could show that this is a metric space and I also know that with the metric $d(x,y):=sup_n|x_n-y_n|$ this space is complete. How do I prove that it is not complete with $rho$?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $B$ be the set of all bounded real sequences. Prove that $(B,rho)$, where $rho(x,y):=sup_ndfracx_n-y_nn$ is a non complete metric space.



      I could show that this is a metric space and I also know that with the metric $d(x,y):=sup_n|x_n-y_n|$ this space is complete. How do I prove that it is not complete with $rho$?







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $B$ be the set of all bounded real sequences. Prove that $(B,rho)$, where $rho(x,y):=sup_ndfracx_n-y_nn$ is a non complete metric space.



      I could show that this is a metric space and I also know that with the metric $d(x,y):=sup_n|x_n-y_n|$ this space is complete. How do I prove that it is not complete with $rho$?









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Aug 6 at 15:49









      mathstackuser

      61011




      61011




















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          The intuition you should have here is that the metric $rho$ reduces the information you have about the tails of the sequences you're looking at so we should try to make something bad happen there.



          For $k leq n$, let $x_k^(n) = k^1/2$ and otherwise let $x_k^(n) = 0$. So then, for fixed $n$, $x^(n) in B$. It is straightforward to show that $(x^(n))_n geq 1$ is a Cauchy sequence for $rho$ (in fact, this is why I chose something like $k^1/2$). I claim that $x^(n)$ does not converge in $(B, rho)$ as $n to infty$.



          To see this, first notice that if $rho(x^(n), x) to 0$ then in particular, for each fixed $k$, $x_k^(n) to x_k$. As a result, if $x^(n) to x$ in $(B, rho)$ then we must have $x = (1, 2^1/2, 3^1/2, 4^1/2, dots)$. But this is not a bounded sequence and hence doesn't lie in $B$, giving us a contradiction.






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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            3
            down vote



            accepted










            The intuition you should have here is that the metric $rho$ reduces the information you have about the tails of the sequences you're looking at so we should try to make something bad happen there.



            For $k leq n$, let $x_k^(n) = k^1/2$ and otherwise let $x_k^(n) = 0$. So then, for fixed $n$, $x^(n) in B$. It is straightforward to show that $(x^(n))_n geq 1$ is a Cauchy sequence for $rho$ (in fact, this is why I chose something like $k^1/2$). I claim that $x^(n)$ does not converge in $(B, rho)$ as $n to infty$.



            To see this, first notice that if $rho(x^(n), x) to 0$ then in particular, for each fixed $k$, $x_k^(n) to x_k$. As a result, if $x^(n) to x$ in $(B, rho)$ then we must have $x = (1, 2^1/2, 3^1/2, 4^1/2, dots)$. But this is not a bounded sequence and hence doesn't lie in $B$, giving us a contradiction.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              The intuition you should have here is that the metric $rho$ reduces the information you have about the tails of the sequences you're looking at so we should try to make something bad happen there.



              For $k leq n$, let $x_k^(n) = k^1/2$ and otherwise let $x_k^(n) = 0$. So then, for fixed $n$, $x^(n) in B$. It is straightforward to show that $(x^(n))_n geq 1$ is a Cauchy sequence for $rho$ (in fact, this is why I chose something like $k^1/2$). I claim that $x^(n)$ does not converge in $(B, rho)$ as $n to infty$.



              To see this, first notice that if $rho(x^(n), x) to 0$ then in particular, for each fixed $k$, $x_k^(n) to x_k$. As a result, if $x^(n) to x$ in $(B, rho)$ then we must have $x = (1, 2^1/2, 3^1/2, 4^1/2, dots)$. But this is not a bounded sequence and hence doesn't lie in $B$, giving us a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                3
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                3
                down vote



                accepted






                The intuition you should have here is that the metric $rho$ reduces the information you have about the tails of the sequences you're looking at so we should try to make something bad happen there.



                For $k leq n$, let $x_k^(n) = k^1/2$ and otherwise let $x_k^(n) = 0$. So then, for fixed $n$, $x^(n) in B$. It is straightforward to show that $(x^(n))_n geq 1$ is a Cauchy sequence for $rho$ (in fact, this is why I chose something like $k^1/2$). I claim that $x^(n)$ does not converge in $(B, rho)$ as $n to infty$.



                To see this, first notice that if $rho(x^(n), x) to 0$ then in particular, for each fixed $k$, $x_k^(n) to x_k$. As a result, if $x^(n) to x$ in $(B, rho)$ then we must have $x = (1, 2^1/2, 3^1/2, 4^1/2, dots)$. But this is not a bounded sequence and hence doesn't lie in $B$, giving us a contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                The intuition you should have here is that the metric $rho$ reduces the information you have about the tails of the sequences you're looking at so we should try to make something bad happen there.



                For $k leq n$, let $x_k^(n) = k^1/2$ and otherwise let $x_k^(n) = 0$. So then, for fixed $n$, $x^(n) in B$. It is straightforward to show that $(x^(n))_n geq 1$ is a Cauchy sequence for $rho$ (in fact, this is why I chose something like $k^1/2$). I claim that $x^(n)$ does not converge in $(B, rho)$ as $n to infty$.



                To see this, first notice that if $rho(x^(n), x) to 0$ then in particular, for each fixed $k$, $x_k^(n) to x_k$. As a result, if $x^(n) to x$ in $(B, rho)$ then we must have $x = (1, 2^1/2, 3^1/2, 4^1/2, dots)$. But this is not a bounded sequence and hence doesn't lie in $B$, giving us a contradiction.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Aug 6 at 16:14









                Rhys Steele

                5,6101828




                5,6101828






















                     

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