How to prove $e^t-1 > (e-1) t^2$.

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I want to prove




$$e^t-1 ge (e-1) t^2, qquad tin[0,1].$$




For $tin[0,1]$, we have $t^n le t^m$ whenever $m>n.$ I want to use this inequality in the proof of above statement but unable to proceed for terms beyond $t^2.$







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    up vote
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    favorite












    I want to prove




    $$e^t-1 ge (e-1) t^2, qquad tin[0,1].$$




    For $tin[0,1]$, we have $t^n le t^m$ whenever $m>n.$ I want to use this inequality in the proof of above statement but unable to proceed for terms beyond $t^2.$







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I want to prove




      $$e^t-1 ge (e-1) t^2, qquad tin[0,1].$$




      For $tin[0,1]$, we have $t^n le t^m$ whenever $m>n.$ I want to use this inequality in the proof of above statement but unable to proceed for terms beyond $t^2.$







      share|cite|improve this question













      I want to prove




      $$e^t-1 ge (e-1) t^2, qquad tin[0,1].$$




      For $tin[0,1]$, we have $t^n le t^m$ whenever $m>n.$ I want to use this inequality in the proof of above statement but unable to proceed for terms beyond $t^2.$









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 27 at 1:50









      Nosrati

      19.2k41544




      19.2k41544









      asked Jul 26 at 6:42









      Birendra Singh

      1036




      1036




















          5 Answers
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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          The inequality is trivially an equality for $t=0$ or $t=1$. Define $$f(t):=big(exp(t)-1big)-(texte-1),t^2=sum_k=1^infty,fract^kk!-sum_k=1^infty,fract^2k!=(t-t^2)-sum_k=3^infty,fract^2(1-t^k-2)k!$$
          for $tin(0,1)$.
          That is,
          $$g(t):=fracf(t)t(1-t)=1-sum_k=3^infty,fract,left(1+t+t^2+ldots+t^k-3right)k!> 1-sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!$$
          for every $tin(0,1)$.
          Now,
          $$sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!=sum_k=3^infty,frac1(k-1)!-2,sum_k=3^infty,frac1k!=left(texte-2right)-2left(texte-frac52right)=3-texte,.$$
          That is,
          $$g(t)> 1-(3-texte)=texte-2>0,.$$
          The claim immediately follows. In fact, this proof gives a stronger inequality:
          $$exp(t)geq 1+ (texte-1),t^2+(texte-2),t(1-t)=1+(texte-2),t+t^2text for every tgeq 0,.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer






























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Alternative (and straightforward) approach. Note that $f(t)=e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2$ is concave in $[0,1]$ because for $tin[0,1]$,
            $$f''(t)=e^t-2(e-1)leq e-2e+2=-e+2<0$$
            and $f(0)=f(1)=0$. Hence, for $tin[0,1]$,
            $$e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2=f(t)=f(0+tcdot 1)geq f(0)+tcdot f(1)=0.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
              – Did
              Jul 26 at 7:04











            • @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
              – Robert Z
              Jul 26 at 7:07

















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Proof



            Denote $$f(x)=x^t,~~~~~t in [0,1].$$



            Then by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, we have $$f(e)-f(1)=f'(xi)(e-1),~~~xi in (1,e).$$



            Namely, $$e^t-1=txi^t-1(e-1).$$



            Thus, $$xi^t-1 geq e^t-1 geq tgeq 0,$$which is desired.






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Hint:



              By the transformation



              $$x(1-x)=z,$$ or



              $$x=frac1pmsqrt1-4z2$$ we fold the axis and merge the two roots at $z=0$.



              Then the two branches of the function



              $$f(z):=e^frac1pmsqrt1-4z2-1-(e-1)left(frac1pmsqrt1-4z2right)^2$$



              seems to have a Taylor development with positive-only coefficients.



              enter image description here



              But this needs to be proven.






              share|cite|improve this answer






























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                This is only a hint, because it’s not difficult to explain the rest.



                So, the tangent on $,displaystylefrace^t-1t,$ in $,t=1,$ is $,e-2+t,$ .
                We get $,displaystylefrace^t-1tgeq e-2+t geq (e-1)t,$ .






                share|cite|improve this answer





















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                  5 Answers
                  5






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes








                  5 Answers
                  5






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes









                  active

                  oldest

                  votes






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes








                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  The inequality is trivially an equality for $t=0$ or $t=1$. Define $$f(t):=big(exp(t)-1big)-(texte-1),t^2=sum_k=1^infty,fract^kk!-sum_k=1^infty,fract^2k!=(t-t^2)-sum_k=3^infty,fract^2(1-t^k-2)k!$$
                  for $tin(0,1)$.
                  That is,
                  $$g(t):=fracf(t)t(1-t)=1-sum_k=3^infty,fract,left(1+t+t^2+ldots+t^k-3right)k!> 1-sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!$$
                  for every $tin(0,1)$.
                  Now,
                  $$sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!=sum_k=3^infty,frac1(k-1)!-2,sum_k=3^infty,frac1k!=left(texte-2right)-2left(texte-frac52right)=3-texte,.$$
                  That is,
                  $$g(t)> 1-(3-texte)=texte-2>0,.$$
                  The claim immediately follows. In fact, this proof gives a stronger inequality:
                  $$exp(t)geq 1+ (texte-1),t^2+(texte-2),t(1-t)=1+(texte-2),t+t^2text for every tgeq 0,.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer



























                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote



                    accepted










                    The inequality is trivially an equality for $t=0$ or $t=1$. Define $$f(t):=big(exp(t)-1big)-(texte-1),t^2=sum_k=1^infty,fract^kk!-sum_k=1^infty,fract^2k!=(t-t^2)-sum_k=3^infty,fract^2(1-t^k-2)k!$$
                    for $tin(0,1)$.
                    That is,
                    $$g(t):=fracf(t)t(1-t)=1-sum_k=3^infty,fract,left(1+t+t^2+ldots+t^k-3right)k!> 1-sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!$$
                    for every $tin(0,1)$.
                    Now,
                    $$sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!=sum_k=3^infty,frac1(k-1)!-2,sum_k=3^infty,frac1k!=left(texte-2right)-2left(texte-frac52right)=3-texte,.$$
                    That is,
                    $$g(t)> 1-(3-texte)=texte-2>0,.$$
                    The claim immediately follows. In fact, this proof gives a stronger inequality:
                    $$exp(t)geq 1+ (texte-1),t^2+(texte-2),t(1-t)=1+(texte-2),t+t^2text for every tgeq 0,.$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer

























                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote



                      accepted







                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote



                      accepted






                      The inequality is trivially an equality for $t=0$ or $t=1$. Define $$f(t):=big(exp(t)-1big)-(texte-1),t^2=sum_k=1^infty,fract^kk!-sum_k=1^infty,fract^2k!=(t-t^2)-sum_k=3^infty,fract^2(1-t^k-2)k!$$
                      for $tin(0,1)$.
                      That is,
                      $$g(t):=fracf(t)t(1-t)=1-sum_k=3^infty,fract,left(1+t+t^2+ldots+t^k-3right)k!> 1-sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!$$
                      for every $tin(0,1)$.
                      Now,
                      $$sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!=sum_k=3^infty,frac1(k-1)!-2,sum_k=3^infty,frac1k!=left(texte-2right)-2left(texte-frac52right)=3-texte,.$$
                      That is,
                      $$g(t)> 1-(3-texte)=texte-2>0,.$$
                      The claim immediately follows. In fact, this proof gives a stronger inequality:
                      $$exp(t)geq 1+ (texte-1),t^2+(texte-2),t(1-t)=1+(texte-2),t+t^2text for every tgeq 0,.$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer















                      The inequality is trivially an equality for $t=0$ or $t=1$. Define $$f(t):=big(exp(t)-1big)-(texte-1),t^2=sum_k=1^infty,fract^kk!-sum_k=1^infty,fract^2k!=(t-t^2)-sum_k=3^infty,fract^2(1-t^k-2)k!$$
                      for $tin(0,1)$.
                      That is,
                      $$g(t):=fracf(t)t(1-t)=1-sum_k=3^infty,fract,left(1+t+t^2+ldots+t^k-3right)k!> 1-sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!$$
                      for every $tin(0,1)$.
                      Now,
                      $$sum_k=3^infty,frac(k-2)k!=sum_k=3^infty,frac1(k-1)!-2,sum_k=3^infty,frac1k!=left(texte-2right)-2left(texte-frac52right)=3-texte,.$$
                      That is,
                      $$g(t)> 1-(3-texte)=texte-2>0,.$$
                      The claim immediately follows. In fact, this proof gives a stronger inequality:
                      $$exp(t)geq 1+ (texte-1),t^2+(texte-2),t(1-t)=1+(texte-2),t+t^2text for every tgeq 0,.$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer















                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Jul 26 at 15:44


























                      answered Jul 26 at 7:30









                      Batominovski

                      23k22777




                      23k22777




















                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Alternative (and straightforward) approach. Note that $f(t)=e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2$ is concave in $[0,1]$ because for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$f''(t)=e^t-2(e-1)leq e-2e+2=-e+2<0$$
                          and $f(0)=f(1)=0$. Hence, for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2=f(t)=f(0+tcdot 1)geq f(0)+tcdot f(1)=0.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                          • This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
                            – Did
                            Jul 26 at 7:04











                          • @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
                            – Robert Z
                            Jul 26 at 7:07














                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Alternative (and straightforward) approach. Note that $f(t)=e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2$ is concave in $[0,1]$ because for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$f''(t)=e^t-2(e-1)leq e-2e+2=-e+2<0$$
                          and $f(0)=f(1)=0$. Hence, for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2=f(t)=f(0+tcdot 1)geq f(0)+tcdot f(1)=0.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                          • This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
                            – Did
                            Jul 26 at 7:04











                          • @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
                            – Robert Z
                            Jul 26 at 7:07












                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Alternative (and straightforward) approach. Note that $f(t)=e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2$ is concave in $[0,1]$ because for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$f''(t)=e^t-2(e-1)leq e-2e+2=-e+2<0$$
                          and $f(0)=f(1)=0$. Hence, for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2=f(t)=f(0+tcdot 1)geq f(0)+tcdot f(1)=0.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer















                          Alternative (and straightforward) approach. Note that $f(t)=e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2$ is concave in $[0,1]$ because for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$f''(t)=e^t-2(e-1)leq e-2e+2=-e+2<0$$
                          and $f(0)=f(1)=0$. Hence, for $tin[0,1]$,
                          $$e^t-1 -(e-1) t^2=f(t)=f(0+tcdot 1)geq f(0)+tcdot f(1)=0.$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer















                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Jul 26 at 7:32


























                          answered Jul 26 at 6:51









                          Robert Z

                          83.9k954122




                          83.9k954122











                          • This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
                            – Did
                            Jul 26 at 7:04











                          • @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
                            – Robert Z
                            Jul 26 at 7:07
















                          • This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
                            – Did
                            Jul 26 at 7:04











                          • @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
                            – Robert Z
                            Jul 26 at 7:07















                          This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
                          – Did
                          Jul 26 at 7:04





                          This is also the approach I would select, but the OP is explicitely asking about another one.
                          – Did
                          Jul 26 at 7:04













                          @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
                          – Robert Z
                          Jul 26 at 7:07




                          @Did Yes, I did not notice this OP's request.
                          – Robert Z
                          Jul 26 at 7:07










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          Proof



                          Denote $$f(x)=x^t,~~~~~t in [0,1].$$



                          Then by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, we have $$f(e)-f(1)=f'(xi)(e-1),~~~xi in (1,e).$$



                          Namely, $$e^t-1=txi^t-1(e-1).$$



                          Thus, $$xi^t-1 geq e^t-1 geq tgeq 0,$$which is desired.






                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote













                            Proof



                            Denote $$f(x)=x^t,~~~~~t in [0,1].$$



                            Then by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, we have $$f(e)-f(1)=f'(xi)(e-1),~~~xi in (1,e).$$



                            Namely, $$e^t-1=txi^t-1(e-1).$$



                            Thus, $$xi^t-1 geq e^t-1 geq tgeq 0,$$which is desired.






                            share|cite|improve this answer























                              up vote
                              1
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              1
                              down vote









                              Proof



                              Denote $$f(x)=x^t,~~~~~t in [0,1].$$



                              Then by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, we have $$f(e)-f(1)=f'(xi)(e-1),~~~xi in (1,e).$$



                              Namely, $$e^t-1=txi^t-1(e-1).$$



                              Thus, $$xi^t-1 geq e^t-1 geq tgeq 0,$$which is desired.






                              share|cite|improve this answer













                              Proof



                              Denote $$f(x)=x^t,~~~~~t in [0,1].$$



                              Then by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem, we have $$f(e)-f(1)=f'(xi)(e-1),~~~xi in (1,e).$$



                              Namely, $$e^t-1=txi^t-1(e-1).$$



                              Thus, $$xi^t-1 geq e^t-1 geq tgeq 0,$$which is desired.







                              share|cite|improve this answer













                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              answered Jul 26 at 12:14









                              mengdie1982

                              2,835216




                              2,835216




















                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  Hint:



                                  By the transformation



                                  $$x(1-x)=z,$$ or



                                  $$x=frac1pmsqrt1-4z2$$ we fold the axis and merge the two roots at $z=0$.



                                  Then the two branches of the function



                                  $$f(z):=e^frac1pmsqrt1-4z2-1-(e-1)left(frac1pmsqrt1-4z2right)^2$$



                                  seems to have a Taylor development with positive-only coefficients.



                                  enter image description here



                                  But this needs to be proven.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer



























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote













                                    Hint:



                                    By the transformation



                                    $$x(1-x)=z,$$ or



                                    $$x=frac1pmsqrt1-4z2$$ we fold the axis and merge the two roots at $z=0$.



                                    Then the two branches of the function



                                    $$f(z):=e^frac1pmsqrt1-4z2-1-(e-1)left(frac1pmsqrt1-4z2right)^2$$



                                    seems to have a Taylor development with positive-only coefficients.



                                    enter image description here



                                    But this needs to be proven.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer

























                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      0
                                      down vote









                                      Hint:



                                      By the transformation



                                      $$x(1-x)=z,$$ or



                                      $$x=frac1pmsqrt1-4z2$$ we fold the axis and merge the two roots at $z=0$.



                                      Then the two branches of the function



                                      $$f(z):=e^frac1pmsqrt1-4z2-1-(e-1)left(frac1pmsqrt1-4z2right)^2$$



                                      seems to have a Taylor development with positive-only coefficients.



                                      enter image description here



                                      But this needs to be proven.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer















                                      Hint:



                                      By the transformation



                                      $$x(1-x)=z,$$ or



                                      $$x=frac1pmsqrt1-4z2$$ we fold the axis and merge the two roots at $z=0$.



                                      Then the two branches of the function



                                      $$f(z):=e^frac1pmsqrt1-4z2-1-(e-1)left(frac1pmsqrt1-4z2right)^2$$



                                      seems to have a Taylor development with positive-only coefficients.



                                      enter image description here



                                      But this needs to be proven.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer















                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited Jul 26 at 8:30


























                                      answered Jul 26 at 7:01









                                      Yves Daoust

                                      111k665203




                                      111k665203




















                                          up vote
                                          0
                                          down vote













                                          This is only a hint, because it’s not difficult to explain the rest.



                                          So, the tangent on $,displaystylefrace^t-1t,$ in $,t=1,$ is $,e-2+t,$ .
                                          We get $,displaystylefrace^t-1tgeq e-2+t geq (e-1)t,$ .






                                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote













                                            This is only a hint, because it’s not difficult to explain the rest.



                                            So, the tangent on $,displaystylefrace^t-1t,$ in $,t=1,$ is $,e-2+t,$ .
                                            We get $,displaystylefrace^t-1tgeq e-2+t geq (e-1)t,$ .






                                            share|cite|improve this answer























                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote










                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote









                                              This is only a hint, because it’s not difficult to explain the rest.



                                              So, the tangent on $,displaystylefrace^t-1t,$ in $,t=1,$ is $,e-2+t,$ .
                                              We get $,displaystylefrace^t-1tgeq e-2+t geq (e-1)t,$ .






                                              share|cite|improve this answer













                                              This is only a hint, because it’s not difficult to explain the rest.



                                              So, the tangent on $,displaystylefrace^t-1t,$ in $,t=1,$ is $,e-2+t,$ .
                                              We get $,displaystylefrace^t-1tgeq e-2+t geq (e-1)t,$ .







                                              share|cite|improve this answer













                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer











                                              answered Jul 26 at 9:59









                                              user90369

                                              7,606925




                                              7,606925






















                                                   

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