Number of descendants at the Nth generation. Absurd result… :(

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Are we all the descendants of Charlemagne?



The assumption seems logical but I was wondering if I could calculate the probability, or maybe just the number of descendants at the Nth generation. But it‘s complicated. So here‘s a simplified version:



A group of 4 people: A, B, C and D.
Each generation, two couples are formed (there are 3 possibilities: AB/CD, AC/BD and AD/BC)
These couples have children together (between 0 and 4).
The next generation is also 4 members strong. Each member of the new generation has an equal probability of being the child of the first couple or of the second.
The same process is repeated.



What is the probability of being a descendant of A at the Nth generation?



If I break it up, I would say that at:



  • Generation 0 (G0) there is only A, so a 25% chance.


  • Generation 1 (G1): every child has an equal probability of being the child of A or of the other couple. So a 50% chance.


  • Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.


  • Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...


....BUT.........



There is a 6.25% probability that NO person in G1 is the descendant of A. In that case, the probability of there not being ANY descendant of A in the Nth generation, MUST be superior to 6.25%!! How come then are we finding it to be 0%??!!



What is wrong here??!!



Thanks a lot in advance!







share|cite|improve this question



















  • Sometimes cousins marry each other, reducing your number of distinct ancestors. Indeed all humans alive today are cousins, some more distant than others
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • According to Wikipedia, Charlemagne had eighteen children (some with his wives and others with other women) and many of his descendents are clearly alive today, for example through the Habsburgs, Capetians and Plantagenets.
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • I think the problem may lie in the statement "if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%..." Are you sure? What happens if you try calculating it for n=3 and beyond?
    – alcana
    yesterday














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Are we all the descendants of Charlemagne?



The assumption seems logical but I was wondering if I could calculate the probability, or maybe just the number of descendants at the Nth generation. But it‘s complicated. So here‘s a simplified version:



A group of 4 people: A, B, C and D.
Each generation, two couples are formed (there are 3 possibilities: AB/CD, AC/BD and AD/BC)
These couples have children together (between 0 and 4).
The next generation is also 4 members strong. Each member of the new generation has an equal probability of being the child of the first couple or of the second.
The same process is repeated.



What is the probability of being a descendant of A at the Nth generation?



If I break it up, I would say that at:



  • Generation 0 (G0) there is only A, so a 25% chance.


  • Generation 1 (G1): every child has an equal probability of being the child of A or of the other couple. So a 50% chance.


  • Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.


  • Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...


....BUT.........



There is a 6.25% probability that NO person in G1 is the descendant of A. In that case, the probability of there not being ANY descendant of A in the Nth generation, MUST be superior to 6.25%!! How come then are we finding it to be 0%??!!



What is wrong here??!!



Thanks a lot in advance!







share|cite|improve this question



















  • Sometimes cousins marry each other, reducing your number of distinct ancestors. Indeed all humans alive today are cousins, some more distant than others
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • According to Wikipedia, Charlemagne had eighteen children (some with his wives and others with other women) and many of his descendents are clearly alive today, for example through the Habsburgs, Capetians and Plantagenets.
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • I think the problem may lie in the statement "if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%..." Are you sure? What happens if you try calculating it for n=3 and beyond?
    – alcana
    yesterday












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Are we all the descendants of Charlemagne?



The assumption seems logical but I was wondering if I could calculate the probability, or maybe just the number of descendants at the Nth generation. But it‘s complicated. So here‘s a simplified version:



A group of 4 people: A, B, C and D.
Each generation, two couples are formed (there are 3 possibilities: AB/CD, AC/BD and AD/BC)
These couples have children together (between 0 and 4).
The next generation is also 4 members strong. Each member of the new generation has an equal probability of being the child of the first couple or of the second.
The same process is repeated.



What is the probability of being a descendant of A at the Nth generation?



If I break it up, I would say that at:



  • Generation 0 (G0) there is only A, so a 25% chance.


  • Generation 1 (G1): every child has an equal probability of being the child of A or of the other couple. So a 50% chance.


  • Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.


  • Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...


....BUT.........



There is a 6.25% probability that NO person in G1 is the descendant of A. In that case, the probability of there not being ANY descendant of A in the Nth generation, MUST be superior to 6.25%!! How come then are we finding it to be 0%??!!



What is wrong here??!!



Thanks a lot in advance!







share|cite|improve this question











Are we all the descendants of Charlemagne?



The assumption seems logical but I was wondering if I could calculate the probability, or maybe just the number of descendants at the Nth generation. But it‘s complicated. So here‘s a simplified version:



A group of 4 people: A, B, C and D.
Each generation, two couples are formed (there are 3 possibilities: AB/CD, AC/BD and AD/BC)
These couples have children together (between 0 and 4).
The next generation is also 4 members strong. Each member of the new generation has an equal probability of being the child of the first couple or of the second.
The same process is repeated.



What is the probability of being a descendant of A at the Nth generation?



If I break it up, I would say that at:



  • Generation 0 (G0) there is only A, so a 25% chance.


  • Generation 1 (G1): every child has an equal probability of being the child of A or of the other couple. So a 50% chance.


  • Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.


  • Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...


....BUT.........



There is a 6.25% probability that NO person in G1 is the descendant of A. In that case, the probability of there not being ANY descendant of A in the Nth generation, MUST be superior to 6.25%!! How come then are we finding it to be 0%??!!



What is wrong here??!!



Thanks a lot in advance!









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked yesterday









Eek

132




132











  • Sometimes cousins marry each other, reducing your number of distinct ancestors. Indeed all humans alive today are cousins, some more distant than others
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • According to Wikipedia, Charlemagne had eighteen children (some with his wives and others with other women) and many of his descendents are clearly alive today, for example through the Habsburgs, Capetians and Plantagenets.
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • I think the problem may lie in the statement "if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%..." Are you sure? What happens if you try calculating it for n=3 and beyond?
    – alcana
    yesterday
















  • Sometimes cousins marry each other, reducing your number of distinct ancestors. Indeed all humans alive today are cousins, some more distant than others
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • According to Wikipedia, Charlemagne had eighteen children (some with his wives and others with other women) and many of his descendents are clearly alive today, for example through the Habsburgs, Capetians and Plantagenets.
    – Henry
    yesterday










  • I think the problem may lie in the statement "if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%..." Are you sure? What happens if you try calculating it for n=3 and beyond?
    – alcana
    yesterday















Sometimes cousins marry each other, reducing your number of distinct ancestors. Indeed all humans alive today are cousins, some more distant than others
– Henry
yesterday




Sometimes cousins marry each other, reducing your number of distinct ancestors. Indeed all humans alive today are cousins, some more distant than others
– Henry
yesterday












According to Wikipedia, Charlemagne had eighteen children (some with his wives and others with other women) and many of his descendents are clearly alive today, for example through the Habsburgs, Capetians and Plantagenets.
– Henry
yesterday




According to Wikipedia, Charlemagne had eighteen children (some with his wives and others with other women) and many of his descendents are clearly alive today, for example through the Habsburgs, Capetians and Plantagenets.
– Henry
yesterday












I think the problem may lie in the statement "if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%..." Are you sure? What happens if you try calculating it for n=3 and beyond?
– alcana
yesterday




I think the problem may lie in the statement "if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%..." Are you sure? What happens if you try calculating it for n=3 and beyond?
– alcana
yesterday










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Joriki's analysis looks convincing, but skips somewhat quickly past what is wrong with your analysis:




Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.




So far so good. Each person in G1 has randomly chosen either the A-nonA couple or the nonA-nonA couple as his parents, so the "A-ness" of two randomly chosen persons in G1 is independent.



Without this independence your "25% chance" wouldn't necessarily hold.




Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...




Here it goes wrong if you repeat your analysis from G2 because "mother not descended from A" and "father not descended from A" are no longer independent -- in particular your cannot multiply their probabilities to find the probability of your ancestors being A-free.



On the contrary, in late generations it becomes overwhelmingly likely that either everyone descends from A or nobody does. Thus with high probability, two randomly chosen persons have the same A-ness, which means that the A-ness of your mother and father will be highly correlated.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
    – Eek
    yesterday

















up vote
2
down vote













You don't specify how the couples are chosen; I'll assume that in each generation one of the three possible combinations is independently and uniformly chosen.



The problem with your calculation is that you treat all the probabilities as independent and only keep track of the probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$, whereas you need the entire probability distribution in each generation in order to derive it for the next generation.



In the first generation of descendants, you have a binomial distribution for the number of descendants of $A$:



beginarrayc
n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
p&frac116&frac416&frac616&frac416&frac116
endarray



Now couples are formed. If there are $0$ descendants of $A$, there will be $0$ couples whose children will be descendants of $A$. If there is $1$ descendant, there will be $1$ such couple. If there are $3$ or $4$ descendants, there will be $2$ such couples. The case of $2$ descendants is a bit more complicated: With probability $frac13$ the two descendants end up in the same couple, and then there's only one couple descended from $A$, and with probability $frac23$ the two descendants end up in different couples, which are then both descended from $A$. Thus the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$ is



beginarrayc
m&0&1&2\hline
p&frac116&frac616&frac916
endarray



Now if there are $0$ couples descended from $A$, no-one in the next generation will be descended from $A$, and if there are $2$, everyone will; whereas if there is $1$, we get the binomial distribution again. So in the next generation, the probability distribution for the number of people descended from $A$ is



beginarrayc
n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
p&frac11128&frac12128&frac18128&frac12128&frac75128
endarray



The expected value is $frac916cdot1+frac616cdotfrac12=frac34$, so up to this point your probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$ is correct. But the distribution of the number of couples descended from $A$ in this generation now comes out as



beginarrayc
m&0&1&2\hline
p&frac11128&frac18128&frac99128
endarray



So the expected number of descendants of $A$ in the next generation will be $frac99128cdot1+frac18128cdotfrac12=frac2732$, not nearly $100%$.



We can express the process using matrices to see how quickly one of the two equilibria is reached and how likely they are. We have the following update rule for the vector $p$ of the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$:



$$
p'=pmatrix
1&0&0&0&0\
0&1&frac13&0&0\
0&0&frac23&1&1
pmatrix
1&frac116&0\
0&frac416&0\
0&frac616&0\
0&frac416&0\
0&frac116&1\
=pmatrix
1&frac116&0\
0&frac616&0\
0&frac916&1
p;.
$$



The matrix on the right has two eigenvalues $1$ corresponding to the equilibrium distributions where everyone or no one is a descendant of $A$. The third eigenvalue is $frac616$, with eigenvector $(-1,10,-9)^top$. Your initial distribution $(0,1,0)^top$ decomposes as



$$
pmatrix0\1\0=frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110pmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
$$



so after applying the matrix $j$ times this becomes



$$
frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110left(frac38right)^jpmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
$$



and the limit for $jtoinfty$ is



$$
pmatrixfrac110\0\frac910;.
$$



So in the long run, the probability that everyone will be descended from $A$ is $90%$ and the probability that no one will be descended from $A$ is $10%$.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
    – Eek
    yesterday

















up vote
0
down vote













Turn it around. I have two parents, four grandparents, eight great grandparents and so on. If we go back $30$ generations I would have $2^30 approx 1$ billion ancestors. $600$ years ago there were not a billion people on earth, so many of those ancestors must be the same people. If you assume much mixing at all, I must be descended from everybody alive in the year $1200$.



There are two holes in this analysis. One, some of the people did not have any children, so I am not descended from them. Two, there could be isolated groups who do not mix with the general population. A European of $800$ could do the same calculation and claim to be descended from everybody alive in $400$ or some such year. As far as we know there was no mixing with the inhabitants of the Americas during that period and probably none with some other remote areas.






share|cite|improve this answer





















    Your Answer




    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    );
    );
    , "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: false,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );








     

    draft saved


    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2872411%2fnumber-of-descendants-at-the-nth-generation-absurd-result%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest






























    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Joriki's analysis looks convincing, but skips somewhat quickly past what is wrong with your analysis:




    Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.




    So far so good. Each person in G1 has randomly chosen either the A-nonA couple or the nonA-nonA couple as his parents, so the "A-ness" of two randomly chosen persons in G1 is independent.



    Without this independence your "25% chance" wouldn't necessarily hold.




    Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...




    Here it goes wrong if you repeat your analysis from G2 because "mother not descended from A" and "father not descended from A" are no longer independent -- in particular your cannot multiply their probabilities to find the probability of your ancestors being A-free.



    On the contrary, in late generations it becomes overwhelmingly likely that either everyone descends from A or nobody does. Thus with high probability, two randomly chosen persons have the same A-ness, which means that the A-ness of your mother and father will be highly correlated.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
      – Eek
      yesterday














    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Joriki's analysis looks convincing, but skips somewhat quickly past what is wrong with your analysis:




    Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.




    So far so good. Each person in G1 has randomly chosen either the A-nonA couple or the nonA-nonA couple as his parents, so the "A-ness" of two randomly chosen persons in G1 is independent.



    Without this independence your "25% chance" wouldn't necessarily hold.




    Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...




    Here it goes wrong if you repeat your analysis from G2 because "mother not descended from A" and "father not descended from A" are no longer independent -- in particular your cannot multiply their probabilities to find the probability of your ancestors being A-free.



    On the contrary, in late generations it becomes overwhelmingly likely that either everyone descends from A or nobody does. Thus with high probability, two randomly chosen persons have the same A-ness, which means that the A-ness of your mother and father will be highly correlated.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
      – Eek
      yesterday












    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    Joriki's analysis looks convincing, but skips somewhat quickly past what is wrong with your analysis:




    Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.




    So far so good. Each person in G1 has randomly chosen either the A-nonA couple or the nonA-nonA couple as his parents, so the "A-ness" of two randomly chosen persons in G1 is independent.



    Without this independence your "25% chance" wouldn't necessarily hold.




    Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...




    Here it goes wrong if you repeat your analysis from G2 because "mother not descended from A" and "father not descended from A" are no longer independent -- in particular your cannot multiply their probabilities to find the probability of your ancestors being A-free.



    On the contrary, in late generations it becomes overwhelmingly likely that either everyone descends from A or nobody does. Thus with high probability, two randomly chosen persons have the same A-ness, which means that the A-ness of your mother and father will be highly correlated.






    share|cite|improve this answer













    Joriki's analysis looks convincing, but skips somewhat quickly past what is wrong with your analysis:




    Generation 2 (G2): every member of the group of G1 has a 50% chance of not being a descendant of A. When I pair two of them randomly together, they have a 25% chance of neither of them being a descendant of A. So each member of G2 has a 75% chance of being a descendant of A.




    So far so good. Each person in G1 has randomly chosen either the A-nonA couple or the nonA-nonA couple as his parents, so the "A-ness" of two randomly chosen persons in G1 is independent.



    Without this independence your "25% chance" wouldn't necessarily hold.




    Generation N (Gn): if you go on this way, it‘s easy to see the probability rises to 100%...




    Here it goes wrong if you repeat your analysis from G2 because "mother not descended from A" and "father not descended from A" are no longer independent -- in particular your cannot multiply their probabilities to find the probability of your ancestors being A-free.



    On the contrary, in late generations it becomes overwhelmingly likely that either everyone descends from A or nobody does. Thus with high probability, two randomly chosen persons have the same A-ness, which means that the A-ness of your mother and father will be highly correlated.







    share|cite|improve this answer













    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer











    answered yesterday









    Henning Makholm

    225k16289516




    225k16289516







    • 1




      Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
      – Eek
      yesterday












    • 1




      Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
      – Eek
      yesterday







    1




    1




    Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
    – Eek
    yesterday




    Thank you! I understand now what the problem was! Ok! Thanks a lot for your lightning quick answers! You are really great!
    – Eek
    yesterday










    up vote
    2
    down vote













    You don't specify how the couples are chosen; I'll assume that in each generation one of the three possible combinations is independently and uniformly chosen.



    The problem with your calculation is that you treat all the probabilities as independent and only keep track of the probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$, whereas you need the entire probability distribution in each generation in order to derive it for the next generation.



    In the first generation of descendants, you have a binomial distribution for the number of descendants of $A$:



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac116&frac416&frac616&frac416&frac116
    endarray



    Now couples are formed. If there are $0$ descendants of $A$, there will be $0$ couples whose children will be descendants of $A$. If there is $1$ descendant, there will be $1$ such couple. If there are $3$ or $4$ descendants, there will be $2$ such couples. The case of $2$ descendants is a bit more complicated: With probability $frac13$ the two descendants end up in the same couple, and then there's only one couple descended from $A$, and with probability $frac23$ the two descendants end up in different couples, which are then both descended from $A$. Thus the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac116&frac616&frac916
    endarray



    Now if there are $0$ couples descended from $A$, no-one in the next generation will be descended from $A$, and if there are $2$, everyone will; whereas if there is $1$, we get the binomial distribution again. So in the next generation, the probability distribution for the number of people descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac11128&frac12128&frac18128&frac12128&frac75128
    endarray



    The expected value is $frac916cdot1+frac616cdotfrac12=frac34$, so up to this point your probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$ is correct. But the distribution of the number of couples descended from $A$ in this generation now comes out as



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac11128&frac18128&frac99128
    endarray



    So the expected number of descendants of $A$ in the next generation will be $frac99128cdot1+frac18128cdotfrac12=frac2732$, not nearly $100%$.



    We can express the process using matrices to see how quickly one of the two equilibria is reached and how likely they are. We have the following update rule for the vector $p$ of the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$:



    $$
    p'=pmatrix
    1&0&0&0&0\
    0&1&frac13&0&0\
    0&0&frac23&1&1
    pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac116&1\
    =pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac916&1
    p;.
    $$



    The matrix on the right has two eigenvalues $1$ corresponding to the equilibrium distributions where everyone or no one is a descendant of $A$. The third eigenvalue is $frac616$, with eigenvector $(-1,10,-9)^top$. Your initial distribution $(0,1,0)^top$ decomposes as



    $$
    pmatrix0\1\0=frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110pmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    so after applying the matrix $j$ times this becomes



    $$
    frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110left(frac38right)^jpmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    and the limit for $jtoinfty$ is



    $$
    pmatrixfrac110\0\frac910;.
    $$



    So in the long run, the probability that everyone will be descended from $A$ is $90%$ and the probability that no one will be descended from $A$ is $10%$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 1




      Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
      – Eek
      yesterday














    up vote
    2
    down vote













    You don't specify how the couples are chosen; I'll assume that in each generation one of the three possible combinations is independently and uniformly chosen.



    The problem with your calculation is that you treat all the probabilities as independent and only keep track of the probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$, whereas you need the entire probability distribution in each generation in order to derive it for the next generation.



    In the first generation of descendants, you have a binomial distribution for the number of descendants of $A$:



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac116&frac416&frac616&frac416&frac116
    endarray



    Now couples are formed. If there are $0$ descendants of $A$, there will be $0$ couples whose children will be descendants of $A$. If there is $1$ descendant, there will be $1$ such couple. If there are $3$ or $4$ descendants, there will be $2$ such couples. The case of $2$ descendants is a bit more complicated: With probability $frac13$ the two descendants end up in the same couple, and then there's only one couple descended from $A$, and with probability $frac23$ the two descendants end up in different couples, which are then both descended from $A$. Thus the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac116&frac616&frac916
    endarray



    Now if there are $0$ couples descended from $A$, no-one in the next generation will be descended from $A$, and if there are $2$, everyone will; whereas if there is $1$, we get the binomial distribution again. So in the next generation, the probability distribution for the number of people descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac11128&frac12128&frac18128&frac12128&frac75128
    endarray



    The expected value is $frac916cdot1+frac616cdotfrac12=frac34$, so up to this point your probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$ is correct. But the distribution of the number of couples descended from $A$ in this generation now comes out as



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac11128&frac18128&frac99128
    endarray



    So the expected number of descendants of $A$ in the next generation will be $frac99128cdot1+frac18128cdotfrac12=frac2732$, not nearly $100%$.



    We can express the process using matrices to see how quickly one of the two equilibria is reached and how likely they are. We have the following update rule for the vector $p$ of the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$:



    $$
    p'=pmatrix
    1&0&0&0&0\
    0&1&frac13&0&0\
    0&0&frac23&1&1
    pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac116&1\
    =pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac916&1
    p;.
    $$



    The matrix on the right has two eigenvalues $1$ corresponding to the equilibrium distributions where everyone or no one is a descendant of $A$. The third eigenvalue is $frac616$, with eigenvector $(-1,10,-9)^top$. Your initial distribution $(0,1,0)^top$ decomposes as



    $$
    pmatrix0\1\0=frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110pmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    so after applying the matrix $j$ times this becomes



    $$
    frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110left(frac38right)^jpmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    and the limit for $jtoinfty$ is



    $$
    pmatrixfrac110\0\frac910;.
    $$



    So in the long run, the probability that everyone will be descended from $A$ is $90%$ and the probability that no one will be descended from $A$ is $10%$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 1




      Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
      – Eek
      yesterday












    up vote
    2
    down vote










    up vote
    2
    down vote









    You don't specify how the couples are chosen; I'll assume that in each generation one of the three possible combinations is independently and uniformly chosen.



    The problem with your calculation is that you treat all the probabilities as independent and only keep track of the probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$, whereas you need the entire probability distribution in each generation in order to derive it for the next generation.



    In the first generation of descendants, you have a binomial distribution for the number of descendants of $A$:



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac116&frac416&frac616&frac416&frac116
    endarray



    Now couples are formed. If there are $0$ descendants of $A$, there will be $0$ couples whose children will be descendants of $A$. If there is $1$ descendant, there will be $1$ such couple. If there are $3$ or $4$ descendants, there will be $2$ such couples. The case of $2$ descendants is a bit more complicated: With probability $frac13$ the two descendants end up in the same couple, and then there's only one couple descended from $A$, and with probability $frac23$ the two descendants end up in different couples, which are then both descended from $A$. Thus the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac116&frac616&frac916
    endarray



    Now if there are $0$ couples descended from $A$, no-one in the next generation will be descended from $A$, and if there are $2$, everyone will; whereas if there is $1$, we get the binomial distribution again. So in the next generation, the probability distribution for the number of people descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac11128&frac12128&frac18128&frac12128&frac75128
    endarray



    The expected value is $frac916cdot1+frac616cdotfrac12=frac34$, so up to this point your probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$ is correct. But the distribution of the number of couples descended from $A$ in this generation now comes out as



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac11128&frac18128&frac99128
    endarray



    So the expected number of descendants of $A$ in the next generation will be $frac99128cdot1+frac18128cdotfrac12=frac2732$, not nearly $100%$.



    We can express the process using matrices to see how quickly one of the two equilibria is reached and how likely they are. We have the following update rule for the vector $p$ of the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$:



    $$
    p'=pmatrix
    1&0&0&0&0\
    0&1&frac13&0&0\
    0&0&frac23&1&1
    pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac116&1\
    =pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac916&1
    p;.
    $$



    The matrix on the right has two eigenvalues $1$ corresponding to the equilibrium distributions where everyone or no one is a descendant of $A$. The third eigenvalue is $frac616$, with eigenvector $(-1,10,-9)^top$. Your initial distribution $(0,1,0)^top$ decomposes as



    $$
    pmatrix0\1\0=frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110pmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    so after applying the matrix $j$ times this becomes



    $$
    frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110left(frac38right)^jpmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    and the limit for $jtoinfty$ is



    $$
    pmatrixfrac110\0\frac910;.
    $$



    So in the long run, the probability that everyone will be descended from $A$ is $90%$ and the probability that no one will be descended from $A$ is $10%$.






    share|cite|improve this answer















    You don't specify how the couples are chosen; I'll assume that in each generation one of the three possible combinations is independently and uniformly chosen.



    The problem with your calculation is that you treat all the probabilities as independent and only keep track of the probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$, whereas you need the entire probability distribution in each generation in order to derive it for the next generation.



    In the first generation of descendants, you have a binomial distribution for the number of descendants of $A$:



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac116&frac416&frac616&frac416&frac116
    endarray



    Now couples are formed. If there are $0$ descendants of $A$, there will be $0$ couples whose children will be descendants of $A$. If there is $1$ descendant, there will be $1$ such couple. If there are $3$ or $4$ descendants, there will be $2$ such couples. The case of $2$ descendants is a bit more complicated: With probability $frac13$ the two descendants end up in the same couple, and then there's only one couple descended from $A$, and with probability $frac23$ the two descendants end up in different couples, which are then both descended from $A$. Thus the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac116&frac616&frac916
    endarray



    Now if there are $0$ couples descended from $A$, no-one in the next generation will be descended from $A$, and if there are $2$, everyone will; whereas if there is $1$, we get the binomial distribution again. So in the next generation, the probability distribution for the number of people descended from $A$ is



    beginarrayc
    n&0&1&2&3&4\hline
    p&frac11128&frac12128&frac18128&frac12128&frac75128
    endarray



    The expected value is $frac916cdot1+frac616cdotfrac12=frac34$, so up to this point your probability for individuals to be descendants of $A$ is correct. But the distribution of the number of couples descended from $A$ in this generation now comes out as



    beginarrayc
    m&0&1&2\hline
    p&frac11128&frac18128&frac99128
    endarray



    So the expected number of descendants of $A$ in the next generation will be $frac99128cdot1+frac18128cdotfrac12=frac2732$, not nearly $100%$.



    We can express the process using matrices to see how quickly one of the two equilibria is reached and how likely they are. We have the following update rule for the vector $p$ of the probability distribution for the number of couples descended from $A$:



    $$
    p'=pmatrix
    1&0&0&0&0\
    0&1&frac13&0&0\
    0&0&frac23&1&1
    pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac416&0\
    0&frac116&1\
    =pmatrix
    1&frac116&0\
    0&frac616&0\
    0&frac916&1
    p;.
    $$



    The matrix on the right has two eigenvalues $1$ corresponding to the equilibrium distributions where everyone or no one is a descendant of $A$. The third eigenvalue is $frac616$, with eigenvector $(-1,10,-9)^top$. Your initial distribution $(0,1,0)^top$ decomposes as



    $$
    pmatrix0\1\0=frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110pmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    so after applying the matrix $j$ times this becomes



    $$
    frac110pmatrix1\0\0+frac110left(frac38right)^jpmatrix-1\10\-9+frac910pmatrix0\0\1;,
    $$



    and the limit for $jtoinfty$ is



    $$
    pmatrixfrac110\0\frac910;.
    $$



    So in the long run, the probability that everyone will be descended from $A$ is $90%$ and the probability that no one will be descended from $A$ is $10%$.







    share|cite|improve this answer















    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited yesterday


























    answered yesterday









    joriki

    164k10179328




    164k10179328







    • 1




      Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
      – Eek
      yesterday












    • 1




      Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
      – Eek
      yesterday







    1




    1




    Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
    – Eek
    yesterday




    Thanks a lot!!! That was quickly answered and impressive!! Thanks a lot!!
    – Eek
    yesterday










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Turn it around. I have two parents, four grandparents, eight great grandparents and so on. If we go back $30$ generations I would have $2^30 approx 1$ billion ancestors. $600$ years ago there were not a billion people on earth, so many of those ancestors must be the same people. If you assume much mixing at all, I must be descended from everybody alive in the year $1200$.



    There are two holes in this analysis. One, some of the people did not have any children, so I am not descended from them. Two, there could be isolated groups who do not mix with the general population. A European of $800$ could do the same calculation and claim to be descended from everybody alive in $400$ or some such year. As far as we know there was no mixing with the inhabitants of the Americas during that period and probably none with some other remote areas.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Turn it around. I have two parents, four grandparents, eight great grandparents and so on. If we go back $30$ generations I would have $2^30 approx 1$ billion ancestors. $600$ years ago there were not a billion people on earth, so many of those ancestors must be the same people. If you assume much mixing at all, I must be descended from everybody alive in the year $1200$.



      There are two holes in this analysis. One, some of the people did not have any children, so I am not descended from them. Two, there could be isolated groups who do not mix with the general population. A European of $800$ could do the same calculation and claim to be descended from everybody alive in $400$ or some such year. As far as we know there was no mixing with the inhabitants of the Americas during that period and probably none with some other remote areas.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Turn it around. I have two parents, four grandparents, eight great grandparents and so on. If we go back $30$ generations I would have $2^30 approx 1$ billion ancestors. $600$ years ago there were not a billion people on earth, so many of those ancestors must be the same people. If you assume much mixing at all, I must be descended from everybody alive in the year $1200$.



        There are two holes in this analysis. One, some of the people did not have any children, so I am not descended from them. Two, there could be isolated groups who do not mix with the general population. A European of $800$ could do the same calculation and claim to be descended from everybody alive in $400$ or some such year. As far as we know there was no mixing with the inhabitants of the Americas during that period and probably none with some other remote areas.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Turn it around. I have two parents, four grandparents, eight great grandparents and so on. If we go back $30$ generations I would have $2^30 approx 1$ billion ancestors. $600$ years ago there were not a billion people on earth, so many of those ancestors must be the same people. If you assume much mixing at all, I must be descended from everybody alive in the year $1200$.



        There are two holes in this analysis. One, some of the people did not have any children, so I am not descended from them. Two, there could be isolated groups who do not mix with the general population. A European of $800$ could do the same calculation and claim to be descended from everybody alive in $400$ or some such year. As far as we know there was no mixing with the inhabitants of the Americas during that period and probably none with some other remote areas.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered yesterday









        Ross Millikan

        275k21183348




        275k21183348






















             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


























             


            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2872411%2fnumber-of-descendants-at-the-nth-generation-absurd-result%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest













































































            Comments

            Popular posts from this blog

            What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

            Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

            Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?