Parseval equality with $int |f|^1$

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The famous Parseval equality states that
[
int|f|^2 = int |F|^2,
]
where $f$ and $F$ are related to one another by
[
int f e^-2 pi i r y dr = F(y).
]



My question is, whether there is any result for
[
int |f|
]
given its Fourier transform.







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  • If I remember correctly, if $f in L^2$, then the $L^2$ norm of $f$ is equal to its Fourier transform norm: math.mit.edu/~jerison/103/handouts/fourierint1.13.pdf. For your case of $e^2 pi I r y$, the constant is 1
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 4:51











  • If $f in L^2$, then can we say anything about $int |f|$? (not the mean square)
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:01










  • Not necessarily, there are many $f in L^2$ that are not in $L^1$. Let $f = frac1x chi_[1,infty)$ for one example
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 5:13











  • How about for those belonging to both spaces?
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:22










  • You don't even have inequalities of the type $int |f| leq C (int |F|^2 )^1/2$ or the reverse of this inequality.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 5:39














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












The famous Parseval equality states that
[
int|f|^2 = int |F|^2,
]
where $f$ and $F$ are related to one another by
[
int f e^-2 pi i r y dr = F(y).
]



My question is, whether there is any result for
[
int |f|
]
given its Fourier transform.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • If I remember correctly, if $f in L^2$, then the $L^2$ norm of $f$ is equal to its Fourier transform norm: math.mit.edu/~jerison/103/handouts/fourierint1.13.pdf. For your case of $e^2 pi I r y$, the constant is 1
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 4:51











  • If $f in L^2$, then can we say anything about $int |f|$? (not the mean square)
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:01










  • Not necessarily, there are many $f in L^2$ that are not in $L^1$. Let $f = frac1x chi_[1,infty)$ for one example
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 5:13











  • How about for those belonging to both spaces?
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:22










  • You don't even have inequalities of the type $int |f| leq C (int |F|^2 )^1/2$ or the reverse of this inequality.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 5:39












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











The famous Parseval equality states that
[
int|f|^2 = int |F|^2,
]
where $f$ and $F$ are related to one another by
[
int f e^-2 pi i r y dr = F(y).
]



My question is, whether there is any result for
[
int |f|
]
given its Fourier transform.







share|cite|improve this question













The famous Parseval equality states that
[
int|f|^2 = int |F|^2,
]
where $f$ and $F$ are related to one another by
[
int f e^-2 pi i r y dr = F(y).
]



My question is, whether there is any result for
[
int |f|
]
given its Fourier transform.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 26 at 4:50









Parcly Taxel

33.5k136588




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asked Jul 26 at 4:48









Grown pains

9510




9510











  • If I remember correctly, if $f in L^2$, then the $L^2$ norm of $f$ is equal to its Fourier transform norm: math.mit.edu/~jerison/103/handouts/fourierint1.13.pdf. For your case of $e^2 pi I r y$, the constant is 1
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 4:51











  • If $f in L^2$, then can we say anything about $int |f|$? (not the mean square)
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:01










  • Not necessarily, there are many $f in L^2$ that are not in $L^1$. Let $f = frac1x chi_[1,infty)$ for one example
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 5:13











  • How about for those belonging to both spaces?
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:22










  • You don't even have inequalities of the type $int |f| leq C (int |F|^2 )^1/2$ or the reverse of this inequality.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 5:39
















  • If I remember correctly, if $f in L^2$, then the $L^2$ norm of $f$ is equal to its Fourier transform norm: math.mit.edu/~jerison/103/handouts/fourierint1.13.pdf. For your case of $e^2 pi I r y$, the constant is 1
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 4:51











  • If $f in L^2$, then can we say anything about $int |f|$? (not the mean square)
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:01










  • Not necessarily, there are many $f in L^2$ that are not in $L^1$. Let $f = frac1x chi_[1,infty)$ for one example
    – Raymond Chu
    Jul 26 at 5:13











  • How about for those belonging to both spaces?
    – Grown pains
    Jul 26 at 5:22










  • You don't even have inequalities of the type $int |f| leq C (int |F|^2 )^1/2$ or the reverse of this inequality.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 5:39















If I remember correctly, if $f in L^2$, then the $L^2$ norm of $f$ is equal to its Fourier transform norm: math.mit.edu/~jerison/103/handouts/fourierint1.13.pdf. For your case of $e^2 pi I r y$, the constant is 1
– Raymond Chu
Jul 26 at 4:51





If I remember correctly, if $f in L^2$, then the $L^2$ norm of $f$ is equal to its Fourier transform norm: math.mit.edu/~jerison/103/handouts/fourierint1.13.pdf. For your case of $e^2 pi I r y$, the constant is 1
– Raymond Chu
Jul 26 at 4:51













If $f in L^2$, then can we say anything about $int |f|$? (not the mean square)
– Grown pains
Jul 26 at 5:01




If $f in L^2$, then can we say anything about $int |f|$? (not the mean square)
– Grown pains
Jul 26 at 5:01












Not necessarily, there are many $f in L^2$ that are not in $L^1$. Let $f = frac1x chi_[1,infty)$ for one example
– Raymond Chu
Jul 26 at 5:13





Not necessarily, there are many $f in L^2$ that are not in $L^1$. Let $f = frac1x chi_[1,infty)$ for one example
– Raymond Chu
Jul 26 at 5:13













How about for those belonging to both spaces?
– Grown pains
Jul 26 at 5:22




How about for those belonging to both spaces?
– Grown pains
Jul 26 at 5:22












You don't even have inequalities of the type $int |f| leq C (int |F|^2 )^1/2$ or the reverse of this inequality.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jul 26 at 5:39




You don't even have inequalities of the type $int |f| leq C (int |F|^2 )^1/2$ or the reverse of this inequality.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jul 26 at 5:39















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