Prob. 12, Sec. 4.2, in Bartle & Sherbert's INTRO TO REAL ANALYSIS: If $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ for all $x, y$ and if $lim_xto 0 f(x)$ exists, . . .

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Here is Prob. 12, Sec. 4.2, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




Let $f colon mathbbR to mathbbR$ be such that $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ for all $x, y$ in $mathbbR$. Assume that $lim_x to 0 f = L$ exists. Prove that $L = 0$, and then prove that $f$ has a limit at every point $c in mathbbR$. [Hint: First note that $f(2x) = f(x) + f(x) = 2 f(x)$ for $x in mathbbR$. Also note that $f(x) = f(x-c) + f(c)$ for $x, c$ in $mathbbR$.]




My Attempt:




As $lim_x to 0 f (x) = L$, so, given any real number $varepsilon > 0$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ such that
$$ lvert f(x) - L rvert < varepsilon tag1 $$
for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
$$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < delta; tag2 $$
therefore, we can also conclude that, for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
$$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < fracdelta2 $$
holds, for those $x$ we also have
$$ 0 < lvert 2x - 0 rvert < delta, $$
and so
$$ lvert f(2x) - L rvert < varepsilon, $$
and thus it follows that $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = L $$
also. But as $f(2x) = 2 f(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, so we must have
$$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = 2 lim_x to 0 f(x), $$
that is we must have
$$ L = 2L,$$
which in turn implies that $L = 0$.
Hence $$ lim_x to 0 f(x) = 0 $$
holds.




Am I right? Is this part of the proof correct and clear enough?




Now for any real numbers $c, x$, we find that
$$ f(x) = f(x-c + c) = f(x-c) + f(c), $$
and so
$$ f(x) - f(c) = f(x-c). $$
Now if $x= c$, then we obtain
$$ f(c) - f(c) = f(c-c) $$
or $$ f(0) = 0. $$
Then using (1) and (2) above, we find that, for every real number $varepsilon > 0$, there exists a real number $delta > 0$ such that
$$ lvert f(x) - f(c) rvert = lvert f(x-c) rvert < varepsilon $$
for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
$$ 0 < lvert x-c rvert < delta. $$
Therefore we can conclude that
$$ lim_x to c f(x) = f(c). $$




Is this proof sound enough in each and every detail hereof?







share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    Here is Prob. 12, Sec. 4.2, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




    Let $f colon mathbbR to mathbbR$ be such that $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ for all $x, y$ in $mathbbR$. Assume that $lim_x to 0 f = L$ exists. Prove that $L = 0$, and then prove that $f$ has a limit at every point $c in mathbbR$. [Hint: First note that $f(2x) = f(x) + f(x) = 2 f(x)$ for $x in mathbbR$. Also note that $f(x) = f(x-c) + f(c)$ for $x, c$ in $mathbbR$.]




    My Attempt:




    As $lim_x to 0 f (x) = L$, so, given any real number $varepsilon > 0$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ such that
    $$ lvert f(x) - L rvert < varepsilon tag1 $$
    for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
    $$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < delta; tag2 $$
    therefore, we can also conclude that, for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
    $$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < fracdelta2 $$
    holds, for those $x$ we also have
    $$ 0 < lvert 2x - 0 rvert < delta, $$
    and so
    $$ lvert f(2x) - L rvert < varepsilon, $$
    and thus it follows that $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = L $$
    also. But as $f(2x) = 2 f(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, so we must have
    $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = 2 lim_x to 0 f(x), $$
    that is we must have
    $$ L = 2L,$$
    which in turn implies that $L = 0$.
    Hence $$ lim_x to 0 f(x) = 0 $$
    holds.




    Am I right? Is this part of the proof correct and clear enough?




    Now for any real numbers $c, x$, we find that
    $$ f(x) = f(x-c + c) = f(x-c) + f(c), $$
    and so
    $$ f(x) - f(c) = f(x-c). $$
    Now if $x= c$, then we obtain
    $$ f(c) - f(c) = f(c-c) $$
    or $$ f(0) = 0. $$
    Then using (1) and (2) above, we find that, for every real number $varepsilon > 0$, there exists a real number $delta > 0$ such that
    $$ lvert f(x) - f(c) rvert = lvert f(x-c) rvert < varepsilon $$
    for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
    $$ 0 < lvert x-c rvert < delta. $$
    Therefore we can conclude that
    $$ lim_x to c f(x) = f(c). $$




    Is this proof sound enough in each and every detail hereof?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Here is Prob. 12, Sec. 4.2, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




      Let $f colon mathbbR to mathbbR$ be such that $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ for all $x, y$ in $mathbbR$. Assume that $lim_x to 0 f = L$ exists. Prove that $L = 0$, and then prove that $f$ has a limit at every point $c in mathbbR$. [Hint: First note that $f(2x) = f(x) + f(x) = 2 f(x)$ for $x in mathbbR$. Also note that $f(x) = f(x-c) + f(c)$ for $x, c$ in $mathbbR$.]




      My Attempt:




      As $lim_x to 0 f (x) = L$, so, given any real number $varepsilon > 0$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ such that
      $$ lvert f(x) - L rvert < varepsilon tag1 $$
      for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
      $$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < delta; tag2 $$
      therefore, we can also conclude that, for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
      $$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < fracdelta2 $$
      holds, for those $x$ we also have
      $$ 0 < lvert 2x - 0 rvert < delta, $$
      and so
      $$ lvert f(2x) - L rvert < varepsilon, $$
      and thus it follows that $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = L $$
      also. But as $f(2x) = 2 f(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, so we must have
      $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = 2 lim_x to 0 f(x), $$
      that is we must have
      $$ L = 2L,$$
      which in turn implies that $L = 0$.
      Hence $$ lim_x to 0 f(x) = 0 $$
      holds.




      Am I right? Is this part of the proof correct and clear enough?




      Now for any real numbers $c, x$, we find that
      $$ f(x) = f(x-c + c) = f(x-c) + f(c), $$
      and so
      $$ f(x) - f(c) = f(x-c). $$
      Now if $x= c$, then we obtain
      $$ f(c) - f(c) = f(c-c) $$
      or $$ f(0) = 0. $$
      Then using (1) and (2) above, we find that, for every real number $varepsilon > 0$, there exists a real number $delta > 0$ such that
      $$ lvert f(x) - f(c) rvert = lvert f(x-c) rvert < varepsilon $$
      for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
      $$ 0 < lvert x-c rvert < delta. $$
      Therefore we can conclude that
      $$ lim_x to c f(x) = f(c). $$




      Is this proof sound enough in each and every detail hereof?







      share|cite|improve this question













      Here is Prob. 12, Sec. 4.2, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition:




      Let $f colon mathbbR to mathbbR$ be such that $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ for all $x, y$ in $mathbbR$. Assume that $lim_x to 0 f = L$ exists. Prove that $L = 0$, and then prove that $f$ has a limit at every point $c in mathbbR$. [Hint: First note that $f(2x) = f(x) + f(x) = 2 f(x)$ for $x in mathbbR$. Also note that $f(x) = f(x-c) + f(c)$ for $x, c$ in $mathbbR$.]




      My Attempt:




      As $lim_x to 0 f (x) = L$, so, given any real number $varepsilon > 0$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ such that
      $$ lvert f(x) - L rvert < varepsilon tag1 $$
      for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
      $$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < delta; tag2 $$
      therefore, we can also conclude that, for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
      $$ 0 < lvert x - 0 rvert < fracdelta2 $$
      holds, for those $x$ we also have
      $$ 0 < lvert 2x - 0 rvert < delta, $$
      and so
      $$ lvert f(2x) - L rvert < varepsilon, $$
      and thus it follows that $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = L $$
      also. But as $f(2x) = 2 f(x)$ for all $x in mathbbR$, so we must have
      $$ lim_x to 0 f(2x) = 2 lim_x to 0 f(x), $$
      that is we must have
      $$ L = 2L,$$
      which in turn implies that $L = 0$.
      Hence $$ lim_x to 0 f(x) = 0 $$
      holds.




      Am I right? Is this part of the proof correct and clear enough?




      Now for any real numbers $c, x$, we find that
      $$ f(x) = f(x-c + c) = f(x-c) + f(c), $$
      and so
      $$ f(x) - f(c) = f(x-c). $$
      Now if $x= c$, then we obtain
      $$ f(c) - f(c) = f(c-c) $$
      or $$ f(0) = 0. $$
      Then using (1) and (2) above, we find that, for every real number $varepsilon > 0$, there exists a real number $delta > 0$ such that
      $$ lvert f(x) - f(c) rvert = lvert f(x-c) rvert < varepsilon $$
      for all $x in mathbbR$ for which
      $$ 0 < lvert x-c rvert < delta. $$
      Therefore we can conclude that
      $$ lim_x to c f(x) = f(c). $$




      Is this proof sound enough in each and every detail hereof?









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 3 at 7:35









      Mason

      1,1271223




      1,1271223









      asked Aug 3 at 7:00









      Saaqib Mahmood

      7,09542169




      7,09542169




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Proof



          Since $$f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y),~~~forall x,y in mathbbR,tag1$$
          hence $$f(x)+f(x)=f(x+x),~~~forall xin mathbbR,tag2$$
          namely $$2f(x)=f(2x),~~~forall xin mathbbR.tag3$$
          Let $x to 0$ and take the limits of the both sides of $(3)$. We obtain $$2L=2lim_x to 0f(x)=lim_x to 02f(x)=lim_x to 0f(2x)=L,$$which shows that $$L=0.$$



          Moreover, from $(1)$ we may obtain $$f(c)+f(x-c)=f(x),~~~forall x,c in mathbbR,tag4$$where $c$ is any a constant. Likewise, let $x to c$ and take the limits of both sides of $(4).$ We obtain $$f(c)+0=lim_x to cf(c)+lim_x to cf(x-c)=lim_x to c[f(c)+f(x-c)]=lim_x to cf(x),$$namely $$lim_x to cf(x)=f(c),$$which shows that $f(x)$ has a limit $f(c)$ at $x=c$, in another word, it is continuous at $x=c.$ We are done!






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 7:49











          • @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 7:59










          • I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:04










          • @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 8:09











          • Indeed! Nice proof.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:12










          Your Answer




          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          );
          );
          , "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: false,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );








           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2870823%2fprob-12-sec-4-2-in-bartle-sherberts-intro-to-real-analysis-if-fxy-f%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest






























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Proof



          Since $$f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y),~~~forall x,y in mathbbR,tag1$$
          hence $$f(x)+f(x)=f(x+x),~~~forall xin mathbbR,tag2$$
          namely $$2f(x)=f(2x),~~~forall xin mathbbR.tag3$$
          Let $x to 0$ and take the limits of the both sides of $(3)$. We obtain $$2L=2lim_x to 0f(x)=lim_x to 02f(x)=lim_x to 0f(2x)=L,$$which shows that $$L=0.$$



          Moreover, from $(1)$ we may obtain $$f(c)+f(x-c)=f(x),~~~forall x,c in mathbbR,tag4$$where $c$ is any a constant. Likewise, let $x to c$ and take the limits of both sides of $(4).$ We obtain $$f(c)+0=lim_x to cf(c)+lim_x to cf(x-c)=lim_x to c[f(c)+f(x-c)]=lim_x to cf(x),$$namely $$lim_x to cf(x)=f(c),$$which shows that $f(x)$ has a limit $f(c)$ at $x=c$, in another word, it is continuous at $x=c.$ We are done!






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 7:49











          • @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 7:59










          • I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:04










          • @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 8:09











          • Indeed! Nice proof.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:12














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Proof



          Since $$f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y),~~~forall x,y in mathbbR,tag1$$
          hence $$f(x)+f(x)=f(x+x),~~~forall xin mathbbR,tag2$$
          namely $$2f(x)=f(2x),~~~forall xin mathbbR.tag3$$
          Let $x to 0$ and take the limits of the both sides of $(3)$. We obtain $$2L=2lim_x to 0f(x)=lim_x to 02f(x)=lim_x to 0f(2x)=L,$$which shows that $$L=0.$$



          Moreover, from $(1)$ we may obtain $$f(c)+f(x-c)=f(x),~~~forall x,c in mathbbR,tag4$$where $c$ is any a constant. Likewise, let $x to c$ and take the limits of both sides of $(4).$ We obtain $$f(c)+0=lim_x to cf(c)+lim_x to cf(x-c)=lim_x to c[f(c)+f(x-c)]=lim_x to cf(x),$$namely $$lim_x to cf(x)=f(c),$$which shows that $f(x)$ has a limit $f(c)$ at $x=c$, in another word, it is continuous at $x=c.$ We are done!






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 7:49











          • @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 7:59










          • I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:04










          • @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 8:09











          • Indeed! Nice proof.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:12












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Proof



          Since $$f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y),~~~forall x,y in mathbbR,tag1$$
          hence $$f(x)+f(x)=f(x+x),~~~forall xin mathbbR,tag2$$
          namely $$2f(x)=f(2x),~~~forall xin mathbbR.tag3$$
          Let $x to 0$ and take the limits of the both sides of $(3)$. We obtain $$2L=2lim_x to 0f(x)=lim_x to 02f(x)=lim_x to 0f(2x)=L,$$which shows that $$L=0.$$



          Moreover, from $(1)$ we may obtain $$f(c)+f(x-c)=f(x),~~~forall x,c in mathbbR,tag4$$where $c$ is any a constant. Likewise, let $x to c$ and take the limits of both sides of $(4).$ We obtain $$f(c)+0=lim_x to cf(c)+lim_x to cf(x-c)=lim_x to c[f(c)+f(x-c)]=lim_x to cf(x),$$namely $$lim_x to cf(x)=f(c),$$which shows that $f(x)$ has a limit $f(c)$ at $x=c$, in another word, it is continuous at $x=c.$ We are done!






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Proof



          Since $$f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y),~~~forall x,y in mathbbR,tag1$$
          hence $$f(x)+f(x)=f(x+x),~~~forall xin mathbbR,tag2$$
          namely $$2f(x)=f(2x),~~~forall xin mathbbR.tag3$$
          Let $x to 0$ and take the limits of the both sides of $(3)$. We obtain $$2L=2lim_x to 0f(x)=lim_x to 02f(x)=lim_x to 0f(2x)=L,$$which shows that $$L=0.$$



          Moreover, from $(1)$ we may obtain $$f(c)+f(x-c)=f(x),~~~forall x,c in mathbbR,tag4$$where $c$ is any a constant. Likewise, let $x to c$ and take the limits of both sides of $(4).$ We obtain $$f(c)+0=lim_x to cf(c)+lim_x to cf(x-c)=lim_x to c[f(c)+f(x-c)]=lim_x to cf(x),$$namely $$lim_x to cf(x)=f(c),$$which shows that $f(x)$ has a limit $f(c)$ at $x=c$, in another word, it is continuous at $x=c.$ We are done!







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 3 at 7:43


























          answered Aug 3 at 7:37









          mengdie1982

          2,840216




          2,840216











          • This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 7:49











          • @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 7:59










          • I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:04










          • @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 8:09











          • Indeed! Nice proof.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:12
















          • This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 7:49











          • @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 7:59










          • I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:04










          • @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
            – mengdie1982
            Aug 3 at 8:09











          • Indeed! Nice proof.
            – Mason
            Aug 3 at 8:12















          This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
          – Mason
          Aug 3 at 7:49





          This proof I can offer a genuine critique! Where did you use the fact that $L$ exists (is finite)? This proof doesn't use epsilon deltas so it's not really clear where you use this but we know that we have to use it somewhere... otherwise why would the authors have wrote it in the assumptions? It is tucked into $L=2L implies L=0$. Note that $L=2L$ really implies that $L$ is either zero or infinity.
          – Mason
          Aug 3 at 7:49













          @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
          – mengdie1982
          Aug 3 at 7:59




          @mason Don't you know the rules of limits? If not, I would not post any more comments.
          – mengdie1982
          Aug 3 at 7:59












          I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
          – Mason
          Aug 3 at 8:04




          I don't have to post any comments if you prefer it. But I am not sure what limit rule you are referring to... maybe you can teach me...
          – Mason
          Aug 3 at 8:04












          @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
          – mengdie1982
          Aug 3 at 8:09





          @Mason Considering the CONTEXT of the problem, we should assume that $L$ is a finite limit. If not, can you prove $L=0$? which teacher told you that?
          – mengdie1982
          Aug 3 at 8:09













          Indeed! Nice proof.
          – Mason
          Aug 3 at 8:12




          Indeed! Nice proof.
          – Mason
          Aug 3 at 8:12












           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


























           


          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2870823%2fprob-12-sec-4-2-in-bartle-sherberts-intro-to-real-analysis-if-fxy-f%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest













































































          Comments

          Popular posts from this blog

          What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

          Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

          Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?