Prob. 5 (b), Sec. 4.3, in Bartle & Sherbert's INTRO TO REAL ANALYSIS: Rigorous Proof of a Limit Statement

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Let $f colon mathbbR setminus 1 to mathbbR$ be the function defined by
$$ f(x) colon= fracxx-1 mbox for all x in mathbbR setminus 1 . $$
Then how to prove rigorously the following limit statement?
$$ lim_x to 1 - f(x) = -infty. $$



This is Prob. 5 (b), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



Here is my attempt at a rigorous proof of the above statement.




Let us first restrict our $x$ such that $$ 0 < x < 1. tag0 $$
Then $x-1 < 0$ and so $$ fracxx-1 < 0. tag1 $$



Now let us take any real number $alpha$.



CASE 1: If $alpha geq 0$, then we find from (1) that $f(x) < alpha$
for all $x in mathbbR$ such that $0 < x < 1$.



So if we choose a real number $delta$ such that $0 < delta < 1$, then $-1 < -delta$ and hence $0 < 1-delta$, and thus for all $x in mathbbRsetminus 1 $ such that
$ 1 - delta < x < 1$, we have $0 < x < 1$ which implies that $f(x) < alpha$.



CASE 2: Now let us take our $alpha < 0$.



Then for all $x in mathbbR$ for which (0) above holds, we see that $f(x) < alpha$ holds if and only if
$$ fracxx-1 < alpha, $$
and this holds if and only if
$$ x > (x-1) alpha, $$
[ because $x-1 < 0$, by virtue of (0) ]
or
$$ x > x alpha - alpha tag2 $$



Now (2) holds if and only if
$$ alpha > x alpha - x = x(alpha - 1), $$
and this holds if and only if
$$ fracalphaalpha - 1 < x, tag3 $$
because $alpha - 1 < 0$. [ Note that here we have assumed that $alpha < 0$. ]



Now the left-hand side of (3) can be rewritten as
$$ 1 - frac11-alpha < x. tag3 $$



Now let us choose any real number $delta$ in such a manner that
$$ 0 < delta leq frac11-alpha. $$
Then
$$ - frac11-alpha leq - delta, $$
and hence
$$ 1 - frac11- alpha leq 1 - delta. tag4 $$



So for all $x in mathbbR$, if
$$ 1 - delta < x < 1, $$
then from (4) we can conclude that for all those $x$ we also have
$$ 1 - frac11- alpha < x < 1, $$
and so from (0) and (3) we obtain
$$ f(x) < alpha. $$



Thus in either case we have shown that, for every real number $alpha$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ so that $f(x) < alpha$ for all $x in mathbbR$ which satisfy $$ 1-delta < x < 1. $$



Hence $$ lim_x to 1- fracxx-1 = - infty, $$
as required.




Is this proof correct and clear enough? If not, then where are the deficiencies?







share|cite|improve this question























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $f colon mathbbR setminus 1 to mathbbR$ be the function defined by
    $$ f(x) colon= fracxx-1 mbox for all x in mathbbR setminus 1 . $$
    Then how to prove rigorously the following limit statement?
    $$ lim_x to 1 - f(x) = -infty. $$



    This is Prob. 5 (b), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



    Here is my attempt at a rigorous proof of the above statement.




    Let us first restrict our $x$ such that $$ 0 < x < 1. tag0 $$
    Then $x-1 < 0$ and so $$ fracxx-1 < 0. tag1 $$



    Now let us take any real number $alpha$.



    CASE 1: If $alpha geq 0$, then we find from (1) that $f(x) < alpha$
    for all $x in mathbbR$ such that $0 < x < 1$.



    So if we choose a real number $delta$ such that $0 < delta < 1$, then $-1 < -delta$ and hence $0 < 1-delta$, and thus for all $x in mathbbRsetminus 1 $ such that
    $ 1 - delta < x < 1$, we have $0 < x < 1$ which implies that $f(x) < alpha$.



    CASE 2: Now let us take our $alpha < 0$.



    Then for all $x in mathbbR$ for which (0) above holds, we see that $f(x) < alpha$ holds if and only if
    $$ fracxx-1 < alpha, $$
    and this holds if and only if
    $$ x > (x-1) alpha, $$
    [ because $x-1 < 0$, by virtue of (0) ]
    or
    $$ x > x alpha - alpha tag2 $$



    Now (2) holds if and only if
    $$ alpha > x alpha - x = x(alpha - 1), $$
    and this holds if and only if
    $$ fracalphaalpha - 1 < x, tag3 $$
    because $alpha - 1 < 0$. [ Note that here we have assumed that $alpha < 0$. ]



    Now the left-hand side of (3) can be rewritten as
    $$ 1 - frac11-alpha < x. tag3 $$



    Now let us choose any real number $delta$ in such a manner that
    $$ 0 < delta leq frac11-alpha. $$
    Then
    $$ - frac11-alpha leq - delta, $$
    and hence
    $$ 1 - frac11- alpha leq 1 - delta. tag4 $$



    So for all $x in mathbbR$, if
    $$ 1 - delta < x < 1, $$
    then from (4) we can conclude that for all those $x$ we also have
    $$ 1 - frac11- alpha < x < 1, $$
    and so from (0) and (3) we obtain
    $$ f(x) < alpha. $$



    Thus in either case we have shown that, for every real number $alpha$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ so that $f(x) < alpha$ for all $x in mathbbR$ which satisfy $$ 1-delta < x < 1. $$



    Hence $$ lim_x to 1- fracxx-1 = - infty, $$
    as required.




    Is this proof correct and clear enough? If not, then where are the deficiencies?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $f colon mathbbR setminus 1 to mathbbR$ be the function defined by
      $$ f(x) colon= fracxx-1 mbox for all x in mathbbR setminus 1 . $$
      Then how to prove rigorously the following limit statement?
      $$ lim_x to 1 - f(x) = -infty. $$



      This is Prob. 5 (b), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



      Here is my attempt at a rigorous proof of the above statement.




      Let us first restrict our $x$ such that $$ 0 < x < 1. tag0 $$
      Then $x-1 < 0$ and so $$ fracxx-1 < 0. tag1 $$



      Now let us take any real number $alpha$.



      CASE 1: If $alpha geq 0$, then we find from (1) that $f(x) < alpha$
      for all $x in mathbbR$ such that $0 < x < 1$.



      So if we choose a real number $delta$ such that $0 < delta < 1$, then $-1 < -delta$ and hence $0 < 1-delta$, and thus for all $x in mathbbRsetminus 1 $ such that
      $ 1 - delta < x < 1$, we have $0 < x < 1$ which implies that $f(x) < alpha$.



      CASE 2: Now let us take our $alpha < 0$.



      Then for all $x in mathbbR$ for which (0) above holds, we see that $f(x) < alpha$ holds if and only if
      $$ fracxx-1 < alpha, $$
      and this holds if and only if
      $$ x > (x-1) alpha, $$
      [ because $x-1 < 0$, by virtue of (0) ]
      or
      $$ x > x alpha - alpha tag2 $$



      Now (2) holds if and only if
      $$ alpha > x alpha - x = x(alpha - 1), $$
      and this holds if and only if
      $$ fracalphaalpha - 1 < x, tag3 $$
      because $alpha - 1 < 0$. [ Note that here we have assumed that $alpha < 0$. ]



      Now the left-hand side of (3) can be rewritten as
      $$ 1 - frac11-alpha < x. tag3 $$



      Now let us choose any real number $delta$ in such a manner that
      $$ 0 < delta leq frac11-alpha. $$
      Then
      $$ - frac11-alpha leq - delta, $$
      and hence
      $$ 1 - frac11- alpha leq 1 - delta. tag4 $$



      So for all $x in mathbbR$, if
      $$ 1 - delta < x < 1, $$
      then from (4) we can conclude that for all those $x$ we also have
      $$ 1 - frac11- alpha < x < 1, $$
      and so from (0) and (3) we obtain
      $$ f(x) < alpha. $$



      Thus in either case we have shown that, for every real number $alpha$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ so that $f(x) < alpha$ for all $x in mathbbR$ which satisfy $$ 1-delta < x < 1. $$



      Hence $$ lim_x to 1- fracxx-1 = - infty, $$
      as required.




      Is this proof correct and clear enough? If not, then where are the deficiencies?







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $f colon mathbbR setminus 1 to mathbbR$ be the function defined by
      $$ f(x) colon= fracxx-1 mbox for all x in mathbbR setminus 1 . $$
      Then how to prove rigorously the following limit statement?
      $$ lim_x to 1 - f(x) = -infty. $$



      This is Prob. 5 (b), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



      Here is my attempt at a rigorous proof of the above statement.




      Let us first restrict our $x$ such that $$ 0 < x < 1. tag0 $$
      Then $x-1 < 0$ and so $$ fracxx-1 < 0. tag1 $$



      Now let us take any real number $alpha$.



      CASE 1: If $alpha geq 0$, then we find from (1) that $f(x) < alpha$
      for all $x in mathbbR$ such that $0 < x < 1$.



      So if we choose a real number $delta$ such that $0 < delta < 1$, then $-1 < -delta$ and hence $0 < 1-delta$, and thus for all $x in mathbbRsetminus 1 $ such that
      $ 1 - delta < x < 1$, we have $0 < x < 1$ which implies that $f(x) < alpha$.



      CASE 2: Now let us take our $alpha < 0$.



      Then for all $x in mathbbR$ for which (0) above holds, we see that $f(x) < alpha$ holds if and only if
      $$ fracxx-1 < alpha, $$
      and this holds if and only if
      $$ x > (x-1) alpha, $$
      [ because $x-1 < 0$, by virtue of (0) ]
      or
      $$ x > x alpha - alpha tag2 $$



      Now (2) holds if and only if
      $$ alpha > x alpha - x = x(alpha - 1), $$
      and this holds if and only if
      $$ fracalphaalpha - 1 < x, tag3 $$
      because $alpha - 1 < 0$. [ Note that here we have assumed that $alpha < 0$. ]



      Now the left-hand side of (3) can be rewritten as
      $$ 1 - frac11-alpha < x. tag3 $$



      Now let us choose any real number $delta$ in such a manner that
      $$ 0 < delta leq frac11-alpha. $$
      Then
      $$ - frac11-alpha leq - delta, $$
      and hence
      $$ 1 - frac11- alpha leq 1 - delta. tag4 $$



      So for all $x in mathbbR$, if
      $$ 1 - delta < x < 1, $$
      then from (4) we can conclude that for all those $x$ we also have
      $$ 1 - frac11- alpha < x < 1, $$
      and so from (0) and (3) we obtain
      $$ f(x) < alpha. $$



      Thus in either case we have shown that, for every real number $alpha$, we can find a real number $delta > 0$ so that $f(x) < alpha$ for all $x in mathbbR$ which satisfy $$ 1-delta < x < 1. $$



      Hence $$ lim_x to 1- fracxx-1 = - infty, $$
      as required.




      Is this proof correct and clear enough? If not, then where are the deficiencies?









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Aug 6 at 12:58









      Saaqib Mahmood

      7,17542169




      7,17542169




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It seems correct, but it's too long and verbose.



          You have to prove that, for every $alpha>0$, there exists $delta>0$ such that, for $1-delta<x<1$,
          $$
          fracxx-1<-alpha
          $$
          This can be rewritten as
          $$
          fracx(1+alpha)-alphax-1<0
          $$
          which is satisfied for
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha<x<1
          $$
          Note that
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha=1-frac11+alpha
          $$
          and take $delta=1/(1+alpha)$.



          You don't even discuss the case $alphale0$; if you're pedantic, just take $delta=1/2$ for every $alphale 0$ (the value of $delta$ corresponding to $alpha=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
            – Saaqib Mahmood
            Aug 6 at 13:46










          • @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
            – egreg
            Aug 6 at 13:57










          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It seems correct, but it's too long and verbose.



          You have to prove that, for every $alpha>0$, there exists $delta>0$ such that, for $1-delta<x<1$,
          $$
          fracxx-1<-alpha
          $$
          This can be rewritten as
          $$
          fracx(1+alpha)-alphax-1<0
          $$
          which is satisfied for
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha<x<1
          $$
          Note that
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha=1-frac11+alpha
          $$
          and take $delta=1/(1+alpha)$.



          You don't even discuss the case $alphale0$; if you're pedantic, just take $delta=1/2$ for every $alphale 0$ (the value of $delta$ corresponding to $alpha=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
            – Saaqib Mahmood
            Aug 6 at 13:46










          • @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
            – egreg
            Aug 6 at 13:57














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It seems correct, but it's too long and verbose.



          You have to prove that, for every $alpha>0$, there exists $delta>0$ such that, for $1-delta<x<1$,
          $$
          fracxx-1<-alpha
          $$
          This can be rewritten as
          $$
          fracx(1+alpha)-alphax-1<0
          $$
          which is satisfied for
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha<x<1
          $$
          Note that
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha=1-frac11+alpha
          $$
          and take $delta=1/(1+alpha)$.



          You don't even discuss the case $alphale0$; if you're pedantic, just take $delta=1/2$ for every $alphale 0$ (the value of $delta$ corresponding to $alpha=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
            – Saaqib Mahmood
            Aug 6 at 13:46










          • @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
            – egreg
            Aug 6 at 13:57












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          It seems correct, but it's too long and verbose.



          You have to prove that, for every $alpha>0$, there exists $delta>0$ such that, for $1-delta<x<1$,
          $$
          fracxx-1<-alpha
          $$
          This can be rewritten as
          $$
          fracx(1+alpha)-alphax-1<0
          $$
          which is satisfied for
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha<x<1
          $$
          Note that
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha=1-frac11+alpha
          $$
          and take $delta=1/(1+alpha)$.



          You don't even discuss the case $alphale0$; if you're pedantic, just take $delta=1/2$ for every $alphale 0$ (the value of $delta$ corresponding to $alpha=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          It seems correct, but it's too long and verbose.



          You have to prove that, for every $alpha>0$, there exists $delta>0$ such that, for $1-delta<x<1$,
          $$
          fracxx-1<-alpha
          $$
          This can be rewritten as
          $$
          fracx(1+alpha)-alphax-1<0
          $$
          which is satisfied for
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha<x<1
          $$
          Note that
          $$
          fracalpha1+alpha=1-frac11+alpha
          $$
          and take $delta=1/(1+alpha)$.



          You don't even discuss the case $alphale0$; if you're pedantic, just take $delta=1/2$ for every $alphale 0$ (the value of $delta$ corresponding to $alpha=1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 6 at 13:56


























          answered Aug 6 at 13:38









          egreg

          164k1180187




          164k1180187











          • thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
            – Saaqib Mahmood
            Aug 6 at 13:46










          • @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
            – egreg
            Aug 6 at 13:57
















          • thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
            – Saaqib Mahmood
            Aug 6 at 13:46










          • @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
            – egreg
            Aug 6 at 13:57















          thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
          – Saaqib Mahmood
          Aug 6 at 13:46




          thank you for your solution. As you've rightly pointed out, my proof is indeed rather long and verbose. Actually, I've tried to show in detail exactly how I've come up with the $delta$ which I have. But you've proved the limit statement for a slightly different function.
          – Saaqib Mahmood
          Aug 6 at 13:46












          @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
          – egreg
          Aug 6 at 13:57




          @SaaqibMahmood Oh, well; here's an even easier proof.
          – egreg
          Aug 6 at 13:57












           

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