Proof of A Proposition on Dumit and Foote's Abstract Algebra

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I am reading Section 2.3 of Dummit and Foote's Abstract Algebra, 3rd edition, and am having a hard time proving the following proposition on page 57:




Let $H=langle xrangle$ and assume $|x|=n<infty$. Then $H=langle x^arangle$ if and only if $(a,n)=1$, where $(a,n)$ denotes the greatest common devisor of $a$ and $n$.




My attempt;



If $H=langle x^arangle$, then by Prop. 2, $|H|=|x^a|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, Prop. 2 implies $|H|=|x|=n$. So we have $|x^a|=n$. By Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n, a)$. This and $|x^a|=n$ imply $(n,a)=1$.



Conversely, suppose $(n,a)=1$. Then by Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)=n=|x|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, $|x^a|=|x|=|H|$.
From here, how do I proceed to show $H=langle x^arangle$?




Proposition 2. If $H=langle xrangle$, then $|H|=|x|$.



Proposition 5. Let $G$ be a group, let $xin G$ and let $ainmathbbZ-0$. If $|x|=n<infty$, then $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)$.








share|cite|improve this question























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    I am reading Section 2.3 of Dummit and Foote's Abstract Algebra, 3rd edition, and am having a hard time proving the following proposition on page 57:




    Let $H=langle xrangle$ and assume $|x|=n<infty$. Then $H=langle x^arangle$ if and only if $(a,n)=1$, where $(a,n)$ denotes the greatest common devisor of $a$ and $n$.




    My attempt;



    If $H=langle x^arangle$, then by Prop. 2, $|H|=|x^a|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, Prop. 2 implies $|H|=|x|=n$. So we have $|x^a|=n$. By Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n, a)$. This and $|x^a|=n$ imply $(n,a)=1$.



    Conversely, suppose $(n,a)=1$. Then by Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)=n=|x|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, $|x^a|=|x|=|H|$.
    From here, how do I proceed to show $H=langle x^arangle$?




    Proposition 2. If $H=langle xrangle$, then $|H|=|x|$.



    Proposition 5. Let $G$ be a group, let $xin G$ and let $ainmathbbZ-0$. If $|x|=n<infty$, then $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)$.








    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I am reading Section 2.3 of Dummit and Foote's Abstract Algebra, 3rd edition, and am having a hard time proving the following proposition on page 57:




      Let $H=langle xrangle$ and assume $|x|=n<infty$. Then $H=langle x^arangle$ if and only if $(a,n)=1$, where $(a,n)$ denotes the greatest common devisor of $a$ and $n$.




      My attempt;



      If $H=langle x^arangle$, then by Prop. 2, $|H|=|x^a|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, Prop. 2 implies $|H|=|x|=n$. So we have $|x^a|=n$. By Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n, a)$. This and $|x^a|=n$ imply $(n,a)=1$.



      Conversely, suppose $(n,a)=1$. Then by Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)=n=|x|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, $|x^a|=|x|=|H|$.
      From here, how do I proceed to show $H=langle x^arangle$?




      Proposition 2. If $H=langle xrangle$, then $|H|=|x|$.



      Proposition 5. Let $G$ be a group, let $xin G$ and let $ainmathbbZ-0$. If $|x|=n<infty$, then $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)$.








      share|cite|improve this question











      I am reading Section 2.3 of Dummit and Foote's Abstract Algebra, 3rd edition, and am having a hard time proving the following proposition on page 57:




      Let $H=langle xrangle$ and assume $|x|=n<infty$. Then $H=langle x^arangle$ if and only if $(a,n)=1$, where $(a,n)$ denotes the greatest common devisor of $a$ and $n$.




      My attempt;



      If $H=langle x^arangle$, then by Prop. 2, $|H|=|x^a|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, Prop. 2 implies $|H|=|x|=n$. So we have $|x^a|=n$. By Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n, a)$. This and $|x^a|=n$ imply $(n,a)=1$.



      Conversely, suppose $(n,a)=1$. Then by Prop. 5, $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)=n=|x|$. Since $H=langle xrangle$, $|x^a|=|x|=|H|$.
      From here, how do I proceed to show $H=langle x^arangle$?




      Proposition 2. If $H=langle xrangle$, then $|H|=|x|$.



      Proposition 5. Let $G$ be a group, let $xin G$ and let $ainmathbbZ-0$. If $|x|=n<infty$, then $|x^a|=dfracn(n,a)$.










      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Aug 3 at 2:01









      kmiyazaki

      12110




      12110




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Have you heard of Bezout's identity? It states that there exists $r,s$ integers so that $ncdot r + acdot s=1$. Now try to use this to show $x^as=x^1=x$, and from that conclude $H=langle x^arangle$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you so much.
            – kmiyazaki
            Aug 3 at 3:53










          • How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago







          • 1




            @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
            – ThomasGrubb
            2 days ago










          • I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago










          Your Answer




          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          );
          );
          , "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: false,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );








           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2870663%2fproof-of-a-proposition-on-dumit-and-footes-abstract-algebra%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest






























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Have you heard of Bezout's identity? It states that there exists $r,s$ integers so that $ncdot r + acdot s=1$. Now try to use this to show $x^as=x^1=x$, and from that conclude $H=langle x^arangle$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you so much.
            – kmiyazaki
            Aug 3 at 3:53










          • How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago







          • 1




            @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
            – ThomasGrubb
            2 days ago










          • I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago














          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Have you heard of Bezout's identity? It states that there exists $r,s$ integers so that $ncdot r + acdot s=1$. Now try to use this to show $x^as=x^1=x$, and from that conclude $H=langle x^arangle$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you so much.
            – kmiyazaki
            Aug 3 at 3:53










          • How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago







          • 1




            @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
            – ThomasGrubb
            2 days ago










          • I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago












          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          Have you heard of Bezout's identity? It states that there exists $r,s$ integers so that $ncdot r + acdot s=1$. Now try to use this to show $x^as=x^1=x$, and from that conclude $H=langle x^arangle$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Have you heard of Bezout's identity? It states that there exists $r,s$ integers so that $ncdot r + acdot s=1$. Now try to use this to show $x^as=x^1=x$, and from that conclude $H=langle x^arangle$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Aug 3 at 2:23









          ThomasGrubb

          9,71511335




          9,71511335











          • Thank you so much.
            – kmiyazaki
            Aug 3 at 3:53










          • How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago







          • 1




            @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
            – ThomasGrubb
            2 days ago










          • I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago
















          • Thank you so much.
            – kmiyazaki
            Aug 3 at 3:53










          • How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago







          • 1




            @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
            – ThomasGrubb
            2 days ago










          • I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
            – kmiyazaki
            2 days ago















          Thank you so much.
          – kmiyazaki
          Aug 3 at 3:53




          Thank you so much.
          – kmiyazaki
          Aug 3 at 3:53












          How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
          – kmiyazaki
          2 days ago





          How do you conclude from $x^as=x$ that $H=langle x^arangle$?
          – kmiyazaki
          2 days ago





          1




          1




          @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
          – ThomasGrubb
          2 days ago




          @kmiyazaki the definition of $H$ is $H=1,x,x^2,...$; as sets, clearly $Hsupset langle x^arangle$, so you just have to show the reverse inclusion
          – ThomasGrubb
          2 days ago












          I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
          – kmiyazaki
          2 days ago




          I figure it out. Thank you so much for your help.
          – kmiyazaki
          2 days ago












           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


























           


          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2870663%2fproof-of-a-proposition-on-dumit-and-footes-abstract-algebra%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest













































































          Comments

          Popular posts from this blog

          What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

          Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?

          Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon