Property of meets and joins (infima and suprema) in a set
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From a book:
Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.
So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?
A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.
order-theory supremum-and-infimum lattice-orders
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up vote
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From a book:
Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.
So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?
A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.
order-theory supremum-and-infimum lattice-orders
2
It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
From a book:
Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.
So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?
A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.
order-theory supremum-and-infimum lattice-orders
From a book:
Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.
So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?
A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.
order-theory supremum-and-infimum lattice-orders
edited Jul 26 at 21:59
Taroccoesbrocco
3,36941331
3,36941331
asked Jul 26 at 21:31
Mathemert
189313
189313
2
It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52
add a comment |Â
2
It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52
2
2
It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52
It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.
Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.
If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).
Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
Indeed:
$x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);
any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.
Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.
If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).
Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
Indeed:
$x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);
any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.
Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.
If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).
Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
Indeed:
$x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);
any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.
Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.
If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).
Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
Indeed:
$x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);
any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.
The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.
Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.
If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).
Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
Indeed:
$x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);
any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.
edited Jul 26 at 22:11
answered Jul 26 at 21:47
Taroccoesbrocco
3,36941331
3,36941331
add a comment |Â
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2
It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52