Property of meets and joins (infima and suprema) in a set

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From a book:




Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.




So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?



A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.







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    It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 26 at 21:52














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












From a book:




Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.




So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?



A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 2




    It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 26 at 21:52












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











From a book:




Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.




So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?



A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.







share|cite|improve this question













From a book:




Suppose that $X$ has binary meets and a top element. Then by induction it is easy to see that $X$ has meets of all finite subsets.




So, every 2-element subset of $X$ has a meet (infimum). Why does this imply that every finite subset has a meet too?



A "top element" is just defined to be the infimum of the empty subset, which the author considers finite.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 26 at 21:59









Taroccoesbrocco

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asked Jul 26 at 21:31









Mathemert

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189313







  • 2




    It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 26 at 21:52












  • 2




    It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Jul 26 at 21:52







2




2




It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52




It is not just the author who considers the empty set finite.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Jul 26 at 21:52










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The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.



Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.



If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).



Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
Indeed:



  • $x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);


  • any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.






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    up vote
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    down vote













    The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.



    Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.



    If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).



    Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
    By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
    Indeed:



    • $x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);


    • any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.



      Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.



      If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).



      Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
      By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
      Indeed:



      • $x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);


      • any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
        down vote










        up vote
        2
        down vote









        The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.



        Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.



        If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).



        Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
        By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
        Indeed:



        • $x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);


        • any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.






        share|cite|improve this answer















        The book is right: roughly speaking, the idea is that you have to compare pairwise the elements of the finite subset of $X$. Let us see that more formally.



        Given a finite $Y subseteq X$, I prove by induction on the cardinality $n$ of $Y$ that $X$ has the meet of $Y$.



        If $n = 0$, then $Y = emptyset$ and the meet of $Y$ is the top element (which is an element of $X$ by hypothesis).



        Let $n > 0$: then, $Y = y_1, dots, y_n$ where the $y_i$'s are pairwise distinct.
        By induction hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x$, of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$. By hypothesis, $X$ has the meet, say $x'$, of $x$ and $y_n$. It is easy to prove that $x'$ is the meet of $Y$.
        Indeed:



        • $x'$ is a lower bound of $Y$, since it is a lower bound of $y_n$ and $x$, and hence of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ by transitivity (since $x$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$);


        • any lower bound $z$ of $Y$ is a lower bound of $y_1, dots, y_n-1$ and then $z leq x$ by maximality of $x$, thus $z leq x'$ by transitivity; therefore, $x'$ is greater than or equal to any other lower bound of $Y$.







        share|cite|improve this answer















        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 26 at 22:11


























        answered Jul 26 at 21:47









        Taroccoesbrocco

        3,36941331




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