Restrictions of compositions

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Considering two functions, $f,g:Xto X$ s.t. $Ysubseteq X$ is invariant for both $f$ and $g$, that is $f(Y)subseteq Y$ and similar for $g$. Do we then have $f|_Ycirc g|_Y=(fcirc g)|_Y$. It seems trivial, but I'm not sure how to show it formally. It would be nice to see a set theoretic argument via the restrictions of relations.







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  • What does invariant mean?
    – William Elliot
    Jul 21 at 21:51










  • Ah yes, I'm sorry, I've edited my question
    – zzuussee
    Jul 21 at 21:54














up vote
1
down vote

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Considering two functions, $f,g:Xto X$ s.t. $Ysubseteq X$ is invariant for both $f$ and $g$, that is $f(Y)subseteq Y$ and similar for $g$. Do we then have $f|_Ycirc g|_Y=(fcirc g)|_Y$. It seems trivial, but I'm not sure how to show it formally. It would be nice to see a set theoretic argument via the restrictions of relations.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • What does invariant mean?
    – William Elliot
    Jul 21 at 21:51










  • Ah yes, I'm sorry, I've edited my question
    – zzuussee
    Jul 21 at 21:54












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Considering two functions, $f,g:Xto X$ s.t. $Ysubseteq X$ is invariant for both $f$ and $g$, that is $f(Y)subseteq Y$ and similar for $g$. Do we then have $f|_Ycirc g|_Y=(fcirc g)|_Y$. It seems trivial, but I'm not sure how to show it formally. It would be nice to see a set theoretic argument via the restrictions of relations.







share|cite|improve this question













Considering two functions, $f,g:Xto X$ s.t. $Ysubseteq X$ is invariant for both $f$ and $g$, that is $f(Y)subseteq Y$ and similar for $g$. Do we then have $f|_Ycirc g|_Y=(fcirc g)|_Y$. It seems trivial, but I'm not sure how to show it formally. It would be nice to see a set theoretic argument via the restrictions of relations.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 21 at 21:54
























asked Jul 21 at 21:38









zzuussee

1,512419




1,512419











  • What does invariant mean?
    – William Elliot
    Jul 21 at 21:51










  • Ah yes, I'm sorry, I've edited my question
    – zzuussee
    Jul 21 at 21:54
















  • What does invariant mean?
    – William Elliot
    Jul 21 at 21:51










  • Ah yes, I'm sorry, I've edited my question
    – zzuussee
    Jul 21 at 21:54















What does invariant mean?
– William Elliot
Jul 21 at 21:51




What does invariant mean?
– William Elliot
Jul 21 at 21:51












Ah yes, I'm sorry, I've edited my question
– zzuussee
Jul 21 at 21:54




Ah yes, I'm sorry, I've edited my question
– zzuussee
Jul 21 at 21:54










2 Answers
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2
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accepted










The composition $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y$ is well defined if and only if $g(Y)subset Y$. If that is given, the equation is true as you can see below.



By definition of the restriction, you get $f(x)=fmid_Y(x)$, $g(x)=gmid_Y(x)$ and $fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x)$ for all $xin Y$.



For all $xin Y$ this yields
$$
(fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y)(x)=fmid_Y(gmid_Y(x))=fmid_Y(g(x))=f(g(x))=fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x).
$$
(At the third equation you use $g(x)in Y$.) Hence, $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y=(fcirc g)mid_Y$ holds.






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    It does look trivial: $text lhs=f(g(y))=textrhs forall yin Y$.



    That is, we have $bigcup_yin Y(y,f(g(y)))$ for both functions.



    Note: $fmid _Y=fcirc i:Yrightarrow Y$, where $i:Yhookrightarrow X$ is the inclusion of $Y$ into $X$. I have written $Y$ for the codomain by invariance...






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      The composition $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y$ is well defined if and only if $g(Y)subset Y$. If that is given, the equation is true as you can see below.



      By definition of the restriction, you get $f(x)=fmid_Y(x)$, $g(x)=gmid_Y(x)$ and $fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x)$ for all $xin Y$.



      For all $xin Y$ this yields
      $$
      (fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y)(x)=fmid_Y(gmid_Y(x))=fmid_Y(g(x))=f(g(x))=fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x).
      $$
      (At the third equation you use $g(x)in Y$.) Hence, $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y=(fcirc g)mid_Y$ holds.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted










        The composition $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y$ is well defined if and only if $g(Y)subset Y$. If that is given, the equation is true as you can see below.



        By definition of the restriction, you get $f(x)=fmid_Y(x)$, $g(x)=gmid_Y(x)$ and $fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x)$ for all $xin Y$.



        For all $xin Y$ this yields
        $$
        (fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y)(x)=fmid_Y(gmid_Y(x))=fmid_Y(g(x))=f(g(x))=fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x).
        $$
        (At the third equation you use $g(x)in Y$.) Hence, $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y=(fcirc g)mid_Y$ holds.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          The composition $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y$ is well defined if and only if $g(Y)subset Y$. If that is given, the equation is true as you can see below.



          By definition of the restriction, you get $f(x)=fmid_Y(x)$, $g(x)=gmid_Y(x)$ and $fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x)$ for all $xin Y$.



          For all $xin Y$ this yields
          $$
          (fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y)(x)=fmid_Y(gmid_Y(x))=fmid_Y(g(x))=f(g(x))=fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x).
          $$
          (At the third equation you use $g(x)in Y$.) Hence, $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y=(fcirc g)mid_Y$ holds.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          The composition $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y$ is well defined if and only if $g(Y)subset Y$. If that is given, the equation is true as you can see below.



          By definition of the restriction, you get $f(x)=fmid_Y(x)$, $g(x)=gmid_Y(x)$ and $fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x)$ for all $xin Y$.



          For all $xin Y$ this yields
          $$
          (fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y)(x)=fmid_Y(gmid_Y(x))=fmid_Y(g(x))=f(g(x))=fcirc g(x)=(fcirc g)mid_Y(x).
          $$
          (At the third equation you use $g(x)in Y$.) Hence, $fmid_Ycirc gmid_Y=(fcirc g)mid_Y$ holds.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 21 at 21:57









          Mundron Schmidt

          7,1162727




          7,1162727




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              It does look trivial: $text lhs=f(g(y))=textrhs forall yin Y$.



              That is, we have $bigcup_yin Y(y,f(g(y)))$ for both functions.



              Note: $fmid _Y=fcirc i:Yrightarrow Y$, where $i:Yhookrightarrow X$ is the inclusion of $Y$ into $X$. I have written $Y$ for the codomain by invariance...






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                It does look trivial: $text lhs=f(g(y))=textrhs forall yin Y$.



                That is, we have $bigcup_yin Y(y,f(g(y)))$ for both functions.



                Note: $fmid _Y=fcirc i:Yrightarrow Y$, where $i:Yhookrightarrow X$ is the inclusion of $Y$ into $X$. I have written $Y$ for the codomain by invariance...






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  It does look trivial: $text lhs=f(g(y))=textrhs forall yin Y$.



                  That is, we have $bigcup_yin Y(y,f(g(y)))$ for both functions.



                  Note: $fmid _Y=fcirc i:Yrightarrow Y$, where $i:Yhookrightarrow X$ is the inclusion of $Y$ into $X$. I have written $Y$ for the codomain by invariance...






                  share|cite|improve this answer















                  It does look trivial: $text lhs=f(g(y))=textrhs forall yin Y$.



                  That is, we have $bigcup_yin Y(y,f(g(y)))$ for both functions.



                  Note: $fmid _Y=fcirc i:Yrightarrow Y$, where $i:Yhookrightarrow X$ is the inclusion of $Y$ into $X$. I have written $Y$ for the codomain by invariance...







                  share|cite|improve this answer















                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jul 22 at 0:41


























                  answered Jul 21 at 22:41









                  Chris Custer

                  5,4082622




                  5,4082622






















                       

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