Why can't we apply the L'Hopital rule once the function is no longer an indeterminate form?

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As I understand it, L'Hopital Rule comes from Cauchy's Generalised Mean Value Theorem, which states that if 2 functions, $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are continuous and differentiable over the interval $[a,b]$ and $(a,b)$ respectively, then $∃$
$c∈[a,b]$ such that
$$(f(b)-f(a))/(g(b)-g(a))=(f'(c))/(g'(c))$$



Now if $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are arbitrary functions, why shouldn't L'Hopital Rule hold once the function is no longer indeterminate? Is there something I didn't see in the proof?







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  • Do you mean that $bto a$ (to ensure that $cto a$)?
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday






  • 1




    Consider the limit of $frac3x^22x$ where x is tends to 1.Now putting $x=1$ we have the value $3/2$.But if we apply L'Hospital it will give us wrong answer!
    – Sufaid Saleel
    yesterday










  • @A.Γ. I'm not sure what you mean. From my understanding of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, a and b are boundaries you define for a function, and c is a point on the function where the relationship stated applies.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @SufaidSaleel Yes, that's true. But I don't understand why you have to stop applying L'Hopital Rule once the function is determinate.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @YipJungHon L'Hopital rule apples to limits. It is not clear what limit that you mean in the question.
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












As I understand it, L'Hopital Rule comes from Cauchy's Generalised Mean Value Theorem, which states that if 2 functions, $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are continuous and differentiable over the interval $[a,b]$ and $(a,b)$ respectively, then $∃$
$c∈[a,b]$ such that
$$(f(b)-f(a))/(g(b)-g(a))=(f'(c))/(g'(c))$$



Now if $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are arbitrary functions, why shouldn't L'Hopital Rule hold once the function is no longer indeterminate? Is there something I didn't see in the proof?







share|cite|improve this question



















  • Do you mean that $bto a$ (to ensure that $cto a$)?
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday






  • 1




    Consider the limit of $frac3x^22x$ where x is tends to 1.Now putting $x=1$ we have the value $3/2$.But if we apply L'Hospital it will give us wrong answer!
    – Sufaid Saleel
    yesterday










  • @A.Γ. I'm not sure what you mean. From my understanding of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, a and b are boundaries you define for a function, and c is a point on the function where the relationship stated applies.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @SufaidSaleel Yes, that's true. But I don't understand why you have to stop applying L'Hopital Rule once the function is determinate.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @YipJungHon L'Hopital rule apples to limits. It is not clear what limit that you mean in the question.
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











As I understand it, L'Hopital Rule comes from Cauchy's Generalised Mean Value Theorem, which states that if 2 functions, $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are continuous and differentiable over the interval $[a,b]$ and $(a,b)$ respectively, then $∃$
$c∈[a,b]$ such that
$$(f(b)-f(a))/(g(b)-g(a))=(f'(c))/(g'(c))$$



Now if $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are arbitrary functions, why shouldn't L'Hopital Rule hold once the function is no longer indeterminate? Is there something I didn't see in the proof?







share|cite|improve this question











As I understand it, L'Hopital Rule comes from Cauchy's Generalised Mean Value Theorem, which states that if 2 functions, $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are continuous and differentiable over the interval $[a,b]$ and $(a,b)$ respectively, then $∃$
$c∈[a,b]$ such that
$$(f(b)-f(a))/(g(b)-g(a))=(f'(c))/(g'(c))$$



Now if $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are arbitrary functions, why shouldn't L'Hopital Rule hold once the function is no longer indeterminate? Is there something I didn't see in the proof?









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked yesterday









Yip Jung Hon

14511




14511











  • Do you mean that $bto a$ (to ensure that $cto a$)?
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday






  • 1




    Consider the limit of $frac3x^22x$ where x is tends to 1.Now putting $x=1$ we have the value $3/2$.But if we apply L'Hospital it will give us wrong answer!
    – Sufaid Saleel
    yesterday










  • @A.Γ. I'm not sure what you mean. From my understanding of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, a and b are boundaries you define for a function, and c is a point on the function where the relationship stated applies.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @SufaidSaleel Yes, that's true. But I don't understand why you have to stop applying L'Hopital Rule once the function is determinate.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @YipJungHon L'Hopital rule apples to limits. It is not clear what limit that you mean in the question.
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday

















  • Do you mean that $bto a$ (to ensure that $cto a$)?
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday






  • 1




    Consider the limit of $frac3x^22x$ where x is tends to 1.Now putting $x=1$ we have the value $3/2$.But if we apply L'Hospital it will give us wrong answer!
    – Sufaid Saleel
    yesterday










  • @A.Γ. I'm not sure what you mean. From my understanding of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, a and b are boundaries you define for a function, and c is a point on the function where the relationship stated applies.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @SufaidSaleel Yes, that's true. But I don't understand why you have to stop applying L'Hopital Rule once the function is determinate.
    – Yip Jung Hon
    yesterday










  • @YipJungHon L'Hopital rule apples to limits. It is not clear what limit that you mean in the question.
    – A.Γ.
    yesterday
















Do you mean that $bto a$ (to ensure that $cto a$)?
– A.Γ.
yesterday




Do you mean that $bto a$ (to ensure that $cto a$)?
– A.Γ.
yesterday




1




1




Consider the limit of $frac3x^22x$ where x is tends to 1.Now putting $x=1$ we have the value $3/2$.But if we apply L'Hospital it will give us wrong answer!
– Sufaid Saleel
yesterday




Consider the limit of $frac3x^22x$ where x is tends to 1.Now putting $x=1$ we have the value $3/2$.But if we apply L'Hospital it will give us wrong answer!
– Sufaid Saleel
yesterday












@A.Γ. I'm not sure what you mean. From my understanding of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, a and b are boundaries you define for a function, and c is a point on the function where the relationship stated applies.
– Yip Jung Hon
yesterday




@A.Γ. I'm not sure what you mean. From my understanding of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, a and b are boundaries you define for a function, and c is a point on the function where the relationship stated applies.
– Yip Jung Hon
yesterday












@SufaidSaleel Yes, that's true. But I don't understand why you have to stop applying L'Hopital Rule once the function is determinate.
– Yip Jung Hon
yesterday




@SufaidSaleel Yes, that's true. But I don't understand why you have to stop applying L'Hopital Rule once the function is determinate.
– Yip Jung Hon
yesterday












@YipJungHon L'Hopital rule apples to limits. It is not clear what limit that you mean in the question.
– A.Γ.
yesterday





@YipJungHon L'Hopital rule apples to limits. It is not clear what limit that you mean in the question.
– A.Γ.
yesterday











2 Answers
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When $lim_xto af(x)=lim_xto ag(x)=0$, then we can apply Cauchy's theorem:$$fracf(x)g(x)=fracf(x)-f(a)g(x)-f(a)=fracf'(c)g'(c),$$for some $c$ and therefore$$lim_xto afracf'(x)g'(x)=Limplieslim_xto afracf(x)g(x)=L.$$But if $lim_xto af(x)neq0$ or $lim_xto ag(x)neq0$, this argument doesn't apply anymore.



Of course, this doesn't actually prove that we can't apply L'Hopital's rule then. What proves that is the existence of counter examples.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    5
    down vote













    I usually motivate L'hospital with Taylor series (or linear approximation if it's early in the course.) See that (using $a=0$ for convenience)



    $$lim_xto 0 fracf(x)g(x) = lim_xto 0 fracf(0) +f'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg(0)+g'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



    If both $f(0)=0$ and $g(0)=0$, this becomes



    $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



    But if they are not both $0$, then I can't do this step. Then I can cancel one $x$ in the fraction to get



    $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)+f''(0)x/2+cdotsg'(0)+g''(0)x/2+cdots,$$



    and we can repeat this reasoning until we hit a derivative that's not $0$ at $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






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      active

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      When $lim_xto af(x)=lim_xto ag(x)=0$, then we can apply Cauchy's theorem:$$fracf(x)g(x)=fracf(x)-f(a)g(x)-f(a)=fracf'(c)g'(c),$$for some $c$ and therefore$$lim_xto afracf'(x)g'(x)=Limplieslim_xto afracf(x)g(x)=L.$$But if $lim_xto af(x)neq0$ or $lim_xto ag(x)neq0$, this argument doesn't apply anymore.



      Of course, this doesn't actually prove that we can't apply L'Hopital's rule then. What proves that is the existence of counter examples.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted










        When $lim_xto af(x)=lim_xto ag(x)=0$, then we can apply Cauchy's theorem:$$fracf(x)g(x)=fracf(x)-f(a)g(x)-f(a)=fracf'(c)g'(c),$$for some $c$ and therefore$$lim_xto afracf'(x)g'(x)=Limplieslim_xto afracf(x)g(x)=L.$$But if $lim_xto af(x)neq0$ or $lim_xto ag(x)neq0$, this argument doesn't apply anymore.



        Of course, this doesn't actually prove that we can't apply L'Hopital's rule then. What proves that is the existence of counter examples.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted






          When $lim_xto af(x)=lim_xto ag(x)=0$, then we can apply Cauchy's theorem:$$fracf(x)g(x)=fracf(x)-f(a)g(x)-f(a)=fracf'(c)g'(c),$$for some $c$ and therefore$$lim_xto afracf'(x)g'(x)=Limplieslim_xto afracf(x)g(x)=L.$$But if $lim_xto af(x)neq0$ or $lim_xto ag(x)neq0$, this argument doesn't apply anymore.



          Of course, this doesn't actually prove that we can't apply L'Hopital's rule then. What proves that is the existence of counter examples.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          When $lim_xto af(x)=lim_xto ag(x)=0$, then we can apply Cauchy's theorem:$$fracf(x)g(x)=fracf(x)-f(a)g(x)-f(a)=fracf'(c)g'(c),$$for some $c$ and therefore$$lim_xto afracf'(x)g'(x)=Limplieslim_xto afracf(x)g(x)=L.$$But if $lim_xto af(x)neq0$ or $lim_xto ag(x)neq0$, this argument doesn't apply anymore.



          Of course, this doesn't actually prove that we can't apply L'Hopital's rule then. What proves that is the existence of counter examples.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered yesterday









          José Carlos Santos

          111k1695171




          111k1695171




















              up vote
              5
              down vote













              I usually motivate L'hospital with Taylor series (or linear approximation if it's early in the course.) See that (using $a=0$ for convenience)



              $$lim_xto 0 fracf(x)g(x) = lim_xto 0 fracf(0) +f'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg(0)+g'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



              If both $f(0)=0$ and $g(0)=0$, this becomes



              $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



              But if they are not both $0$, then I can't do this step. Then I can cancel one $x$ in the fraction to get



              $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)+f''(0)x/2+cdotsg'(0)+g''(0)x/2+cdots,$$



              and we can repeat this reasoning until we hit a derivative that's not $0$ at $0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                5
                down vote













                I usually motivate L'hospital with Taylor series (or linear approximation if it's early in the course.) See that (using $a=0$ for convenience)



                $$lim_xto 0 fracf(x)g(x) = lim_xto 0 fracf(0) +f'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg(0)+g'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



                If both $f(0)=0$ and $g(0)=0$, this becomes



                $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



                But if they are not both $0$, then I can't do this step. Then I can cancel one $x$ in the fraction to get



                $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)+f''(0)x/2+cdotsg'(0)+g''(0)x/2+cdots,$$



                and we can repeat this reasoning until we hit a derivative that's not $0$ at $0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote









                  I usually motivate L'hospital with Taylor series (or linear approximation if it's early in the course.) See that (using $a=0$ for convenience)



                  $$lim_xto 0 fracf(x)g(x) = lim_xto 0 fracf(0) +f'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg(0)+g'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



                  If both $f(0)=0$ and $g(0)=0$, this becomes



                  $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



                  But if they are not both $0$, then I can't do this step. Then I can cancel one $x$ in the fraction to get



                  $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)+f''(0)x/2+cdotsg'(0)+g''(0)x/2+cdots,$$



                  and we can repeat this reasoning until we hit a derivative that's not $0$ at $0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  I usually motivate L'hospital with Taylor series (or linear approximation if it's early in the course.) See that (using $a=0$ for convenience)



                  $$lim_xto 0 fracf(x)g(x) = lim_xto 0 fracf(0) +f'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg(0)+g'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



                  If both $f(0)=0$ and $g(0)=0$, this becomes



                  $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)x+f''(0)x^2/2+cdotsg'(0)x+g''(0)x^2/2+cdots.$$



                  But if they are not both $0$, then I can't do this step. Then I can cancel one $x$ in the fraction to get



                  $$lim_xto 0 fracf'(0)+f''(0)x/2+cdotsg'(0)+g''(0)x/2+cdots,$$



                  and we can repeat this reasoning until we hit a derivative that's not $0$ at $0$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered 21 hours ago









                  B. Goddard

                  16.4k21238




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