Why is $(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x)$?
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Definition. Let $T$ be a linear operator on a vector space $V$, and let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue of $T$. The generalized eigenspace of $T$ corresponding to $lambda_1$ denoted $K_lambda$, is the subset of $V$ defined by
$K_lambda$ = $x in V: (T-lambda I)^p(x) = 0$ for some positive integer $p$.
To show that $K_lambda$ is $T$-invariant, consider any $x in K_lambda$. Choose a positive integer $p$ such that $(T-lambda)^p = 0$. Then
$(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x) = T(0) = 0$
I wanted to know how we go from $(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x)$?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
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Definition. Let $T$ be a linear operator on a vector space $V$, and let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue of $T$. The generalized eigenspace of $T$ corresponding to $lambda_1$ denoted $K_lambda$, is the subset of $V$ defined by
$K_lambda$ = $x in V: (T-lambda I)^p(x) = 0$ for some positive integer $p$.
To show that $K_lambda$ is $T$-invariant, consider any $x in K_lambda$. Choose a positive integer $p$ such that $(T-lambda)^p = 0$. Then
$(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x) = T(0) = 0$
I wanted to know how we go from $(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x)$?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
1
Induction on $p$? Or write $T$ as $(T-lambda I)+lambda I$?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
2 days ago
Take both expressions and expand out $(T-lambda I)^p$ using the binomial theorem. After simplifying, you will find there are equal.
– Mike Earnest
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Definition. Let $T$ be a linear operator on a vector space $V$, and let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue of $T$. The generalized eigenspace of $T$ corresponding to $lambda_1$ denoted $K_lambda$, is the subset of $V$ defined by
$K_lambda$ = $x in V: (T-lambda I)^p(x) = 0$ for some positive integer $p$.
To show that $K_lambda$ is $T$-invariant, consider any $x in K_lambda$. Choose a positive integer $p$ such that $(T-lambda)^p = 0$. Then
$(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x) = T(0) = 0$
I wanted to know how we go from $(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x)$?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
Definition. Let $T$ be a linear operator on a vector space $V$, and let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue of $T$. The generalized eigenspace of $T$ corresponding to $lambda_1$ denoted $K_lambda$, is the subset of $V$ defined by
$K_lambda$ = $x in V: (T-lambda I)^p(x) = 0$ for some positive integer $p$.
To show that $K_lambda$ is $T$-invariant, consider any $x in K_lambda$. Choose a positive integer $p$ such that $(T-lambda)^p = 0$. Then
$(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x) = T(0) = 0$
I wanted to know how we go from $(T-lambda I)^pT(x) = T(T-lambda I)^p(x)$?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
edited 2 days ago


José Carlos Santos
111k1695172
111k1695172
asked 2 days ago
K.M
461312
461312
1
Induction on $p$? Or write $T$ as $(T-lambda I)+lambda I$?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
2 days ago
Take both expressions and expand out $(T-lambda I)^p$ using the binomial theorem. After simplifying, you will find there are equal.
– Mike Earnest
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
1
Induction on $p$? Or write $T$ as $(T-lambda I)+lambda I$?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
2 days ago
Take both expressions and expand out $(T-lambda I)^p$ using the binomial theorem. After simplifying, you will find there are equal.
– Mike Earnest
2 days ago
1
1
Induction on $p$? Or write $T$ as $(T-lambda I)+lambda I$?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
2 days ago
Induction on $p$? Or write $T$ as $(T-lambda I)+lambda I$?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
2 days ago
Take both expressions and expand out $(T-lambda I)^p$ using the binomial theorem. After simplifying, you will find there are equal.
– Mike Earnest
2 days ago
Take both expressions and expand out $(T-lambda I)^p$ using the binomial theorem. After simplifying, you will find there are equal.
– Mike Earnest
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
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5
down vote
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Since $T$ commutes with both $T$ and $lambdaoperatornameId$, $T$ commutes with $T-lambdaoperatornameId$ and therefore it comutes with any power of $T-lambdaoperatornameId$.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Since $T$ commutes with both $T$ and $lambdaoperatornameId$, $T$ commutes with $T-lambdaoperatornameId$ and therefore it comutes with any power of $T-lambdaoperatornameId$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Since $T$ commutes with both $T$ and $lambdaoperatornameId$, $T$ commutes with $T-lambdaoperatornameId$ and therefore it comutes with any power of $T-lambdaoperatornameId$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Since $T$ commutes with both $T$ and $lambdaoperatornameId$, $T$ commutes with $T-lambdaoperatornameId$ and therefore it comutes with any power of $T-lambdaoperatornameId$.
Since $T$ commutes with both $T$ and $lambdaoperatornameId$, $T$ commutes with $T-lambdaoperatornameId$ and therefore it comutes with any power of $T-lambdaoperatornameId$.
answered 2 days ago


José Carlos Santos
111k1695172
111k1695172
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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1
Induction on $p$? Or write $T$ as $(T-lambda I)+lambda I$?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
2 days ago
Take both expressions and expand out $(T-lambda I)^p$ using the binomial theorem. After simplifying, you will find there are equal.
– Mike Earnest
2 days ago