Why this argument does not make sense on connected components of $GL_n(mathbb R)$?
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Let $S in GL_n(mathbb R)$ with $det(S) > 0$. Suppose $gamma: [0,1] to GL_n(mathbb R)$ is a continuous path from $S$ to $I$. $gamma$ exists since $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. Suppose $S$ has a negative eigenvalue. Since $t mapsto gamma(t)$ is continuous, there are $n$ continuous functions $lambda_j: [0,1] to mathbb C$ such that for each $t$, the spectrum of $gamma(t)$ is equal to $lambda_j(t)$. I am thinking: for some $j$, we should have $lambda_j(gamma(0)) = lambda_j(S) < 0$ and $lambda_j(gamma(1) ) = 1 > 0$. This says at some $t in [0,1]$, the eigenvalue is $0$ and so there should not exist a path. But this is a clearly wrong argument since we know $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. However, I could not figure out why this is wrong.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra general-topology connectedness
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Let $S in GL_n(mathbb R)$ with $det(S) > 0$. Suppose $gamma: [0,1] to GL_n(mathbb R)$ is a continuous path from $S$ to $I$. $gamma$ exists since $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. Suppose $S$ has a negative eigenvalue. Since $t mapsto gamma(t)$ is continuous, there are $n$ continuous functions $lambda_j: [0,1] to mathbb C$ such that for each $t$, the spectrum of $gamma(t)$ is equal to $lambda_j(t)$. I am thinking: for some $j$, we should have $lambda_j(gamma(0)) = lambda_j(S) < 0$ and $lambda_j(gamma(1) ) = 1 > 0$. This says at some $t in [0,1]$, the eigenvalue is $0$ and so there should not exist a path. But this is a clearly wrong argument since we know $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. However, I could not figure out why this is wrong.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra general-topology connectedness
1
How is the function $lambda _1$ defined?
– Suzet
Jul 22 at 6:07
In $Bbb C$, not every path from $-1$ to $1$ passes through $0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 7:02
I see. This solves my confusion. Thanks.
– user9527
Jul 22 at 7:10
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $S in GL_n(mathbb R)$ with $det(S) > 0$. Suppose $gamma: [0,1] to GL_n(mathbb R)$ is a continuous path from $S$ to $I$. $gamma$ exists since $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. Suppose $S$ has a negative eigenvalue. Since $t mapsto gamma(t)$ is continuous, there are $n$ continuous functions $lambda_j: [0,1] to mathbb C$ such that for each $t$, the spectrum of $gamma(t)$ is equal to $lambda_j(t)$. I am thinking: for some $j$, we should have $lambda_j(gamma(0)) = lambda_j(S) < 0$ and $lambda_j(gamma(1) ) = 1 > 0$. This says at some $t in [0,1]$, the eigenvalue is $0$ and so there should not exist a path. But this is a clearly wrong argument since we know $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. However, I could not figure out why this is wrong.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra general-topology connectedness
Let $S in GL_n(mathbb R)$ with $det(S) > 0$. Suppose $gamma: [0,1] to GL_n(mathbb R)$ is a continuous path from $S$ to $I$. $gamma$ exists since $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. Suppose $S$ has a negative eigenvalue. Since $t mapsto gamma(t)$ is continuous, there are $n$ continuous functions $lambda_j: [0,1] to mathbb C$ such that for each $t$, the spectrum of $gamma(t)$ is equal to $lambda_j(t)$. I am thinking: for some $j$, we should have $lambda_j(gamma(0)) = lambda_j(S) < 0$ and $lambda_j(gamma(1) ) = 1 > 0$. This says at some $t in [0,1]$, the eigenvalue is $0$ and so there should not exist a path. But this is a clearly wrong argument since we know $GL_n(mathbb R)_+$ is connected. However, I could not figure out why this is wrong.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra general-topology connectedness
edited Jul 22 at 6:17
asked Jul 22 at 6:04
user9527
925525
925525
1
How is the function $lambda _1$ defined?
– Suzet
Jul 22 at 6:07
In $Bbb C$, not every path from $-1$ to $1$ passes through $0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 7:02
I see. This solves my confusion. Thanks.
– user9527
Jul 22 at 7:10
add a comment |Â
1
How is the function $lambda _1$ defined?
– Suzet
Jul 22 at 6:07
In $Bbb C$, not every path from $-1$ to $1$ passes through $0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 7:02
I see. This solves my confusion. Thanks.
– user9527
Jul 22 at 7:10
1
1
How is the function $lambda _1$ defined?
– Suzet
Jul 22 at 6:07
How is the function $lambda _1$ defined?
– Suzet
Jul 22 at 6:07
In $Bbb C$, not every path from $-1$ to $1$ passes through $0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 7:02
In $Bbb C$, not every path from $-1$ to $1$ passes through $0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 7:02
I see. This solves my confusion. Thanks.
– user9527
Jul 22 at 7:10
I see. This solves my confusion. Thanks.
– user9527
Jul 22 at 7:10
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
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Let's consider a concrete example: $n=2$, $S=-I$, and $gamma(t)
=pmatrix-cos pi t&sin pi t\-sin pi t&-cos pi t$.
Where is there a matrix with determinant zero here?
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
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$lambda_1$ is a real number. Moreover, $lambda_1 circ gamma$ is as you mentioned a map from $[0,1]$ to $GL_n(mathbb R)$. So saying that $lambda_1(S)<0$ doesn’t make sense.
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Let's consider a concrete example: $n=2$, $S=-I$, and $gamma(t)
=pmatrix-cos pi t&sin pi t\-sin pi t&-cos pi t$.
Where is there a matrix with determinant zero here?
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Let's consider a concrete example: $n=2$, $S=-I$, and $gamma(t)
=pmatrix-cos pi t&sin pi t\-sin pi t&-cos pi t$.
Where is there a matrix with determinant zero here?
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Let's consider a concrete example: $n=2$, $S=-I$, and $gamma(t)
=pmatrix-cos pi t&sin pi t\-sin pi t&-cos pi t$.
Where is there a matrix with determinant zero here?
Let's consider a concrete example: $n=2$, $S=-I$, and $gamma(t)
=pmatrix-cos pi t&sin pi t\-sin pi t&-cos pi t$.
Where is there a matrix with determinant zero here?
answered Jul 22 at 6:10
Lord Shark the Unknown
85.2k950111
85.2k950111
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
add a comment |Â
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
Thanks. I understand we can define a path this way. But I could not see why the argument in question was wrong. Could you point out where the question was fundamentally wrong?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:18
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
$lambda_1$ is a real number. Moreover, $lambda_1 circ gamma$ is as you mentioned a map from $[0,1]$ to $GL_n(mathbb R)$. So saying that $lambda_1(S)<0$ doesn’t make sense.
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
$lambda_1$ is a real number. Moreover, $lambda_1 circ gamma$ is as you mentioned a map from $[0,1]$ to $GL_n(mathbb R)$. So saying that $lambda_1(S)<0$ doesn’t make sense.
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
$lambda_1$ is a real number. Moreover, $lambda_1 circ gamma$ is as you mentioned a map from $[0,1]$ to $GL_n(mathbb R)$. So saying that $lambda_1(S)<0$ doesn’t make sense.
$lambda_1$ is a real number. Moreover, $lambda_1 circ gamma$ is as you mentioned a map from $[0,1]$ to $GL_n(mathbb R)$. So saying that $lambda_1(S)<0$ doesn’t make sense.
answered Jul 22 at 6:11


mathcounterexamples.net
24.1k21653
24.1k21653
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
add a comment |Â
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
I reformulated the question. Does it make sense now?
– user9527
Jul 22 at 6:17
add a comment |Â
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1
How is the function $lambda _1$ defined?
– Suzet
Jul 22 at 6:07
In $Bbb C$, not every path from $-1$ to $1$ passes through $0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 7:02
I see. This solves my confusion. Thanks.
– user9527
Jul 22 at 7:10