Criteria for Ideal of a Hopf Algebra to Yield Closed Subgroup

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Let $k$ be a commutative ring with unity, and let $A$ be the $k$-algebra of an affine group scheme over $k,$ endowed with its usual structure as a Hopf algebra over $k.$ In Waterhouse's textbook, An Introduction to Affine Group Schemes, he discusses the criteria that an ideal $I$ of $A$ must satisfy in order for $A/I$ to represent a closed subgroup scheme. These conditions are



1) If $Delta$ is the comultiplication, then $Delta(I) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A$.



2) If $S$ is the antipode, then $S(I) subseteq I$.



3) If $epsilon$ is the augmentation, then $epsilon(I) = 0.$



I understand that 3) is both necessary and sufficient for the unit element(s) to belong to the subgroup scheme. I also understand that 1) is sufficient for closure under multiplication for the subgroup scheme and that 2) is sufficient for closure under inversion for the subgroup scheme.



I am guessing that 2) is necessary for closure under inversion because we can just consider the canonical projection $A to A/I,$ which is a map with kernel equal to $I.$



However, I am confused as to why 1) is necessary for closure under multiplication.



That is, if it is true that for every $k$-algebra $R$ and for every $f, g : A to R$ with $f(I) = 0 = g(I)$ that we have $left((f otimes g) circ Deltaright) = 0$, then why must condition 1) follow?



Thank you very much.







share|cite|improve this question



















  • I think that I can do sort of the same thing. Namely let $f = g = pi : A to A/I.$ Then $(pi otimes_k pi) circ Delta$ vanishes on $I.$ Hence, $Delta(I) subseteq ker(pi otimes_k pi).$ Now, one must show $ker(pi otimes_k pi) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A.$ Unfortunately, I am not sure how to show this last step. (The reverse inclusion is clear to me, but that is not what is needed.)
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 2:57










  • We want $Delta$ to descend to an algebra homorphism $A/I to A/I otimes A/I$. So I think it must boil down to: suppose $M' subset M$, and $N' subset N$ are $k$-modules. Then $M/M' otimes N/N' simeq Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N')$. Agree?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:57










  • Namely, the iso above seems correct to me - or am I being stupid?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:59










  • I think I see what you mean...but is it clear to you that equality holds for the kernel in the map of my comment? I can’t figure out how to prove the other inclusion...
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 15:57










  • Just to acknowledge that I saw your comment: I'll try to get back to you on this tonight or tomorrow night...
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 16:09














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $k$ be a commutative ring with unity, and let $A$ be the $k$-algebra of an affine group scheme over $k,$ endowed with its usual structure as a Hopf algebra over $k.$ In Waterhouse's textbook, An Introduction to Affine Group Schemes, he discusses the criteria that an ideal $I$ of $A$ must satisfy in order for $A/I$ to represent a closed subgroup scheme. These conditions are



1) If $Delta$ is the comultiplication, then $Delta(I) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A$.



2) If $S$ is the antipode, then $S(I) subseteq I$.



3) If $epsilon$ is the augmentation, then $epsilon(I) = 0.$



I understand that 3) is both necessary and sufficient for the unit element(s) to belong to the subgroup scheme. I also understand that 1) is sufficient for closure under multiplication for the subgroup scheme and that 2) is sufficient for closure under inversion for the subgroup scheme.



I am guessing that 2) is necessary for closure under inversion because we can just consider the canonical projection $A to A/I,$ which is a map with kernel equal to $I.$



However, I am confused as to why 1) is necessary for closure under multiplication.



That is, if it is true that for every $k$-algebra $R$ and for every $f, g : A to R$ with $f(I) = 0 = g(I)$ that we have $left((f otimes g) circ Deltaright) = 0$, then why must condition 1) follow?



Thank you very much.







share|cite|improve this question



















  • I think that I can do sort of the same thing. Namely let $f = g = pi : A to A/I.$ Then $(pi otimes_k pi) circ Delta$ vanishes on $I.$ Hence, $Delta(I) subseteq ker(pi otimes_k pi).$ Now, one must show $ker(pi otimes_k pi) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A.$ Unfortunately, I am not sure how to show this last step. (The reverse inclusion is clear to me, but that is not what is needed.)
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 2:57










  • We want $Delta$ to descend to an algebra homorphism $A/I to A/I otimes A/I$. So I think it must boil down to: suppose $M' subset M$, and $N' subset N$ are $k$-modules. Then $M/M' otimes N/N' simeq Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N')$. Agree?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:57










  • Namely, the iso above seems correct to me - or am I being stupid?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:59










  • I think I see what you mean...but is it clear to you that equality holds for the kernel in the map of my comment? I can’t figure out how to prove the other inclusion...
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 15:57










  • Just to acknowledge that I saw your comment: I'll try to get back to you on this tonight or tomorrow night...
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 16:09












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $k$ be a commutative ring with unity, and let $A$ be the $k$-algebra of an affine group scheme over $k,$ endowed with its usual structure as a Hopf algebra over $k.$ In Waterhouse's textbook, An Introduction to Affine Group Schemes, he discusses the criteria that an ideal $I$ of $A$ must satisfy in order for $A/I$ to represent a closed subgroup scheme. These conditions are



1) If $Delta$ is the comultiplication, then $Delta(I) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A$.



2) If $S$ is the antipode, then $S(I) subseteq I$.



3) If $epsilon$ is the augmentation, then $epsilon(I) = 0.$



I understand that 3) is both necessary and sufficient for the unit element(s) to belong to the subgroup scheme. I also understand that 1) is sufficient for closure under multiplication for the subgroup scheme and that 2) is sufficient for closure under inversion for the subgroup scheme.



I am guessing that 2) is necessary for closure under inversion because we can just consider the canonical projection $A to A/I,$ which is a map with kernel equal to $I.$



However, I am confused as to why 1) is necessary for closure under multiplication.



That is, if it is true that for every $k$-algebra $R$ and for every $f, g : A to R$ with $f(I) = 0 = g(I)$ that we have $left((f otimes g) circ Deltaright) = 0$, then why must condition 1) follow?



Thank you very much.







share|cite|improve this question











Let $k$ be a commutative ring with unity, and let $A$ be the $k$-algebra of an affine group scheme over $k,$ endowed with its usual structure as a Hopf algebra over $k.$ In Waterhouse's textbook, An Introduction to Affine Group Schemes, he discusses the criteria that an ideal $I$ of $A$ must satisfy in order for $A/I$ to represent a closed subgroup scheme. These conditions are



1) If $Delta$ is the comultiplication, then $Delta(I) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A$.



2) If $S$ is the antipode, then $S(I) subseteq I$.



3) If $epsilon$ is the augmentation, then $epsilon(I) = 0.$



I understand that 3) is both necessary and sufficient for the unit element(s) to belong to the subgroup scheme. I also understand that 1) is sufficient for closure under multiplication for the subgroup scheme and that 2) is sufficient for closure under inversion for the subgroup scheme.



I am guessing that 2) is necessary for closure under inversion because we can just consider the canonical projection $A to A/I,$ which is a map with kernel equal to $I.$



However, I am confused as to why 1) is necessary for closure under multiplication.



That is, if it is true that for every $k$-algebra $R$ and for every $f, g : A to R$ with $f(I) = 0 = g(I)$ that we have $left((f otimes g) circ Deltaright) = 0$, then why must condition 1) follow?



Thank you very much.









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 22 at 2:29









Mishel Skenderi

1398




1398











  • I think that I can do sort of the same thing. Namely let $f = g = pi : A to A/I.$ Then $(pi otimes_k pi) circ Delta$ vanishes on $I.$ Hence, $Delta(I) subseteq ker(pi otimes_k pi).$ Now, one must show $ker(pi otimes_k pi) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A.$ Unfortunately, I am not sure how to show this last step. (The reverse inclusion is clear to me, but that is not what is needed.)
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 2:57










  • We want $Delta$ to descend to an algebra homorphism $A/I to A/I otimes A/I$. So I think it must boil down to: suppose $M' subset M$, and $N' subset N$ are $k$-modules. Then $M/M' otimes N/N' simeq Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N')$. Agree?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:57










  • Namely, the iso above seems correct to me - or am I being stupid?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:59










  • I think I see what you mean...but is it clear to you that equality holds for the kernel in the map of my comment? I can’t figure out how to prove the other inclusion...
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 15:57










  • Just to acknowledge that I saw your comment: I'll try to get back to you on this tonight or tomorrow night...
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 16:09
















  • I think that I can do sort of the same thing. Namely let $f = g = pi : A to A/I.$ Then $(pi otimes_k pi) circ Delta$ vanishes on $I.$ Hence, $Delta(I) subseteq ker(pi otimes_k pi).$ Now, one must show $ker(pi otimes_k pi) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A.$ Unfortunately, I am not sure how to show this last step. (The reverse inclusion is clear to me, but that is not what is needed.)
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 2:57










  • We want $Delta$ to descend to an algebra homorphism $A/I to A/I otimes A/I$. So I think it must boil down to: suppose $M' subset M$, and $N' subset N$ are $k$-modules. Then $M/M' otimes N/N' simeq Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N')$. Agree?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:57










  • Namely, the iso above seems correct to me - or am I being stupid?
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 3:59










  • I think I see what you mean...but is it clear to you that equality holds for the kernel in the map of my comment? I can’t figure out how to prove the other inclusion...
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 22 at 15:57










  • Just to acknowledge that I saw your comment: I'll try to get back to you on this tonight or tomorrow night...
    – peter a g
    Jul 22 at 16:09















I think that I can do sort of the same thing. Namely let $f = g = pi : A to A/I.$ Then $(pi otimes_k pi) circ Delta$ vanishes on $I.$ Hence, $Delta(I) subseteq ker(pi otimes_k pi).$ Now, one must show $ker(pi otimes_k pi) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A.$ Unfortunately, I am not sure how to show this last step. (The reverse inclusion is clear to me, but that is not what is needed.)
– Mishel Skenderi
Jul 22 at 2:57




I think that I can do sort of the same thing. Namely let $f = g = pi : A to A/I.$ Then $(pi otimes_k pi) circ Delta$ vanishes on $I.$ Hence, $Delta(I) subseteq ker(pi otimes_k pi).$ Now, one must show $ker(pi otimes_k pi) subseteq A otimes_k I + I otimes_k A.$ Unfortunately, I am not sure how to show this last step. (The reverse inclusion is clear to me, but that is not what is needed.)
– Mishel Skenderi
Jul 22 at 2:57












We want $Delta$ to descend to an algebra homorphism $A/I to A/I otimes A/I$. So I think it must boil down to: suppose $M' subset M$, and $N' subset N$ are $k$-modules. Then $M/M' otimes N/N' simeq Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N')$. Agree?
– peter a g
Jul 22 at 3:57




We want $Delta$ to descend to an algebra homorphism $A/I to A/I otimes A/I$. So I think it must boil down to: suppose $M' subset M$, and $N' subset N$ are $k$-modules. Then $M/M' otimes N/N' simeq Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N')$. Agree?
– peter a g
Jul 22 at 3:57












Namely, the iso above seems correct to me - or am I being stupid?
– peter a g
Jul 22 at 3:59




Namely, the iso above seems correct to me - or am I being stupid?
– peter a g
Jul 22 at 3:59












I think I see what you mean...but is it clear to you that equality holds for the kernel in the map of my comment? I can’t figure out how to prove the other inclusion...
– Mishel Skenderi
Jul 22 at 15:57




I think I see what you mean...but is it clear to you that equality holds for the kernel in the map of my comment? I can’t figure out how to prove the other inclusion...
– Mishel Skenderi
Jul 22 at 15:57












Just to acknowledge that I saw your comment: I'll try to get back to you on this tonight or tomorrow night...
– peter a g
Jul 22 at 16:09




Just to acknowledge that I saw your comment: I'll try to get back to you on this tonight or tomorrow night...
– peter a g
Jul 22 at 16:09










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










As per the comments: we want $Delta colon A to Aotimes A $ to descend to $Delta colon A/I to A/I otimes A/I$.



Condition 1) implies this (and is equivalent to the descent of $Delta$) if the natural map
$$ Aotimes A / (Aotimes I + I otimes A) to A/I otimes A/I,$$
defined and determined by $$ aotimes bmapsto overline a otimes overline b,$$
is an isomorphism, where $overline x = x + I$.



More generally, and for clarity, again as in the comment section, if $M'subset M$, $N'subset N$ are $k$-modules, we want to show that the natural map
$$ Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to M/M' otimes N/N',$$
defined/determined by
$$ motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to overline m otimes overline n$$
is an isomorphism (and $overline m = m + M'$, and similarly for $n$).
Just to give this last map a name, call it $alpha$.



To construct an inverse map $beta$:



Fix $m in M$. Then there is a $k$-linear map
$$phi_m colon N to Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') ,$$

defined by
$$phi_mcolon n to m otimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Clearly, $phi_m$ vanishes on $N'$, so $phi_m$ descends to a $k$-linear map
- call it $phi_m$ again - abuse of notation:
$$ phi_m colon bar n to motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



Now, $m to phi_m$ is $k$-linear, and depends only on $bar m$, so we obtain a $k$-bilinear map
$$ M/M' times N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N'),$$
with
$$ (bar m,bar n) to (motimes n) + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Therefore, by definition (defining property of tensor products) one has the desired $k$-linear map $beta$
$$ M/M' otimes N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



On generators, the two maps $alpha$ and $beta$ are inverses, so $alpha$ and $beta$ are $k$-module inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 24 at 1:59










  • Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
    – peter a g
    Jul 24 at 2:01










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










As per the comments: we want $Delta colon A to Aotimes A $ to descend to $Delta colon A/I to A/I otimes A/I$.



Condition 1) implies this (and is equivalent to the descent of $Delta$) if the natural map
$$ Aotimes A / (Aotimes I + I otimes A) to A/I otimes A/I,$$
defined and determined by $$ aotimes bmapsto overline a otimes overline b,$$
is an isomorphism, where $overline x = x + I$.



More generally, and for clarity, again as in the comment section, if $M'subset M$, $N'subset N$ are $k$-modules, we want to show that the natural map
$$ Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to M/M' otimes N/N',$$
defined/determined by
$$ motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to overline m otimes overline n$$
is an isomorphism (and $overline m = m + M'$, and similarly for $n$).
Just to give this last map a name, call it $alpha$.



To construct an inverse map $beta$:



Fix $m in M$. Then there is a $k$-linear map
$$phi_m colon N to Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') ,$$

defined by
$$phi_mcolon n to m otimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Clearly, $phi_m$ vanishes on $N'$, so $phi_m$ descends to a $k$-linear map
- call it $phi_m$ again - abuse of notation:
$$ phi_m colon bar n to motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



Now, $m to phi_m$ is $k$-linear, and depends only on $bar m$, so we obtain a $k$-bilinear map
$$ M/M' times N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N'),$$
with
$$ (bar m,bar n) to (motimes n) + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Therefore, by definition (defining property of tensor products) one has the desired $k$-linear map $beta$
$$ M/M' otimes N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



On generators, the two maps $alpha$ and $beta$ are inverses, so $alpha$ and $beta$ are $k$-module inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 24 at 1:59










  • Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
    – peter a g
    Jul 24 at 2:01














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










As per the comments: we want $Delta colon A to Aotimes A $ to descend to $Delta colon A/I to A/I otimes A/I$.



Condition 1) implies this (and is equivalent to the descent of $Delta$) if the natural map
$$ Aotimes A / (Aotimes I + I otimes A) to A/I otimes A/I,$$
defined and determined by $$ aotimes bmapsto overline a otimes overline b,$$
is an isomorphism, where $overline x = x + I$.



More generally, and for clarity, again as in the comment section, if $M'subset M$, $N'subset N$ are $k$-modules, we want to show that the natural map
$$ Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to M/M' otimes N/N',$$
defined/determined by
$$ motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to overline m otimes overline n$$
is an isomorphism (and $overline m = m + M'$, and similarly for $n$).
Just to give this last map a name, call it $alpha$.



To construct an inverse map $beta$:



Fix $m in M$. Then there is a $k$-linear map
$$phi_m colon N to Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') ,$$

defined by
$$phi_mcolon n to m otimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Clearly, $phi_m$ vanishes on $N'$, so $phi_m$ descends to a $k$-linear map
- call it $phi_m$ again - abuse of notation:
$$ phi_m colon bar n to motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



Now, $m to phi_m$ is $k$-linear, and depends only on $bar m$, so we obtain a $k$-bilinear map
$$ M/M' times N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N'),$$
with
$$ (bar m,bar n) to (motimes n) + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Therefore, by definition (defining property of tensor products) one has the desired $k$-linear map $beta$
$$ M/M' otimes N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



On generators, the two maps $alpha$ and $beta$ are inverses, so $alpha$ and $beta$ are $k$-module inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 24 at 1:59










  • Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
    – peter a g
    Jul 24 at 2:01












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






As per the comments: we want $Delta colon A to Aotimes A $ to descend to $Delta colon A/I to A/I otimes A/I$.



Condition 1) implies this (and is equivalent to the descent of $Delta$) if the natural map
$$ Aotimes A / (Aotimes I + I otimes A) to A/I otimes A/I,$$
defined and determined by $$ aotimes bmapsto overline a otimes overline b,$$
is an isomorphism, where $overline x = x + I$.



More generally, and for clarity, again as in the comment section, if $M'subset M$, $N'subset N$ are $k$-modules, we want to show that the natural map
$$ Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to M/M' otimes N/N',$$
defined/determined by
$$ motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to overline m otimes overline n$$
is an isomorphism (and $overline m = m + M'$, and similarly for $n$).
Just to give this last map a name, call it $alpha$.



To construct an inverse map $beta$:



Fix $m in M$. Then there is a $k$-linear map
$$phi_m colon N to Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') ,$$

defined by
$$phi_mcolon n to m otimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Clearly, $phi_m$ vanishes on $N'$, so $phi_m$ descends to a $k$-linear map
- call it $phi_m$ again - abuse of notation:
$$ phi_m colon bar n to motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



Now, $m to phi_m$ is $k$-linear, and depends only on $bar m$, so we obtain a $k$-bilinear map
$$ M/M' times N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N'),$$
with
$$ (bar m,bar n) to (motimes n) + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Therefore, by definition (defining property of tensor products) one has the desired $k$-linear map $beta$
$$ M/M' otimes N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



On generators, the two maps $alpha$ and $beta$ are inverses, so $alpha$ and $beta$ are $k$-module inverses.






share|cite|improve this answer













As per the comments: we want $Delta colon A to Aotimes A $ to descend to $Delta colon A/I to A/I otimes A/I$.



Condition 1) implies this (and is equivalent to the descent of $Delta$) if the natural map
$$ Aotimes A / (Aotimes I + I otimes A) to A/I otimes A/I,$$
defined and determined by $$ aotimes bmapsto overline a otimes overline b,$$
is an isomorphism, where $overline x = x + I$.



More generally, and for clarity, again as in the comment section, if $M'subset M$, $N'subset N$ are $k$-modules, we want to show that the natural map
$$ Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to M/M' otimes N/N',$$
defined/determined by
$$ motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N') to overline m otimes overline n$$
is an isomorphism (and $overline m = m + M'$, and similarly for $n$).
Just to give this last map a name, call it $alpha$.



To construct an inverse map $beta$:



Fix $m in M$. Then there is a $k$-linear map
$$phi_m colon N to Motimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N') ,$$

defined by
$$phi_mcolon n to m otimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Clearly, $phi_m$ vanishes on $N'$, so $phi_m$ descends to a $k$-linear map
- call it $phi_m$ again - abuse of notation:
$$ phi_m colon bar n to motimes n + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



Now, $m to phi_m$ is $k$-linear, and depends only on $bar m$, so we obtain a $k$-bilinear map
$$ M/M' times N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N'),$$
with
$$ (bar m,bar n) to (motimes n) + (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$
Therefore, by definition (defining property of tensor products) one has the desired $k$-linear map $beta$
$$ M/M' otimes N/N' to M otimes N / (M'otimes N + M otimes N').$$



On generators, the two maps $alpha$ and $beta$ are inverses, so $alpha$ and $beta$ are $k$-module inverses.







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answered Jul 24 at 1:49









peter a g

2,9801614




2,9801614











  • I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 24 at 1:59










  • Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
    – peter a g
    Jul 24 at 2:01
















  • I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
    – Mishel Skenderi
    Jul 24 at 1:59










  • Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
    – peter a g
    Jul 24 at 2:01















I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
– Mishel Skenderi
Jul 24 at 1:59




I see, thank you. I was hoping to somehow get away with showing that it is injective (and thus an isomorphism) without explicitly constructing an inverse.
– Mishel Skenderi
Jul 24 at 1:59












Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
– peter a g
Jul 24 at 2:01




Yes - I figured as much... Enjoy the book. I remember it being v. good (I have to admit that I didn't read the smoothness section, and am sorry that I never did).
– peter a g
Jul 24 at 2:01












 

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