Diagonal function is holomorphic

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Suppose $F colon mathbbC times mathbbC to mathbbC$ is a continuous function of two complex variables which is holomorphic in each variable (i.e. for each $w in mathbbC$ the functions $z to F(z,w)$ and $z to F(w,z)$ are holomorphic). Show that the function $g(z) = F(z,z)$ is holomorphic.



At first I thought to show that partial derivatives of $g$ are continuous and satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations. It is easy to see that they satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations since $F$ is holomorphic in each variable separately, but I am not sure about the continuity. I don't really know how to use the fact that $F$ is continuous.







share|cite|improve this question























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    Suppose $F colon mathbbC times mathbbC to mathbbC$ is a continuous function of two complex variables which is holomorphic in each variable (i.e. for each $w in mathbbC$ the functions $z to F(z,w)$ and $z to F(w,z)$ are holomorphic). Show that the function $g(z) = F(z,z)$ is holomorphic.



    At first I thought to show that partial derivatives of $g$ are continuous and satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations. It is easy to see that they satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations since $F$ is holomorphic in each variable separately, but I am not sure about the continuity. I don't really know how to use the fact that $F$ is continuous.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose $F colon mathbbC times mathbbC to mathbbC$ is a continuous function of two complex variables which is holomorphic in each variable (i.e. for each $w in mathbbC$ the functions $z to F(z,w)$ and $z to F(w,z)$ are holomorphic). Show that the function $g(z) = F(z,z)$ is holomorphic.



      At first I thought to show that partial derivatives of $g$ are continuous and satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations. It is easy to see that they satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations since $F$ is holomorphic in each variable separately, but I am not sure about the continuity. I don't really know how to use the fact that $F$ is continuous.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Suppose $F colon mathbbC times mathbbC to mathbbC$ is a continuous function of two complex variables which is holomorphic in each variable (i.e. for each $w in mathbbC$ the functions $z to F(z,w)$ and $z to F(w,z)$ are holomorphic). Show that the function $g(z) = F(z,z)$ is holomorphic.



      At first I thought to show that partial derivatives of $g$ are continuous and satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations. It is easy to see that they satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations since $F$ is holomorphic in each variable separately, but I am not sure about the continuity. I don't really know how to use the fact that $F$ is continuous.









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 21 at 1:26









      Ethan Alwaise

      6,061517




      6,061517




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          By the Osgood's lemma we have $F$ is holomorphic as function of two complex variable, which means that locally it is given as power series. In particular, $F$ is a smooth function. Therefore, you can calculate $$fracpartialpartial overline z f(z,z) =0$$
          and conclude $z mapsto f(z,z)$ is holomorphic.
          Just take a look at the Osgood's lemma, it is not a hard result.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );








             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2858158%2fdiagonal-function-is-holomorphic%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote













            By the Osgood's lemma we have $F$ is holomorphic as function of two complex variable, which means that locally it is given as power series. In particular, $F$ is a smooth function. Therefore, you can calculate $$fracpartialpartial overline z f(z,z) =0$$
            and conclude $z mapsto f(z,z)$ is holomorphic.
            Just take a look at the Osgood's lemma, it is not a hard result.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              By the Osgood's lemma we have $F$ is holomorphic as function of two complex variable, which means that locally it is given as power series. In particular, $F$ is a smooth function. Therefore, you can calculate $$fracpartialpartial overline z f(z,z) =0$$
              and conclude $z mapsto f(z,z)$ is holomorphic.
              Just take a look at the Osgood's lemma, it is not a hard result.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                By the Osgood's lemma we have $F$ is holomorphic as function of two complex variable, which means that locally it is given as power series. In particular, $F$ is a smooth function. Therefore, you can calculate $$fracpartialpartial overline z f(z,z) =0$$
                and conclude $z mapsto f(z,z)$ is holomorphic.
                Just take a look at the Osgood's lemma, it is not a hard result.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                By the Osgood's lemma we have $F$ is holomorphic as function of two complex variable, which means that locally it is given as power series. In particular, $F$ is a smooth function. Therefore, you can calculate $$fracpartialpartial overline z f(z,z) =0$$
                and conclude $z mapsto f(z,z)$ is holomorphic.
                Just take a look at the Osgood's lemma, it is not a hard result.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 21 at 1:58









                Hugocito

                1,6451019




                1,6451019






















                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded


























                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2858158%2fdiagonal-function-is-holomorphic%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    Comments

                    Popular posts from this blog

                    What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

                    Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

                    Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?