Every surjective homomorphism $alpha : mathbbZ^3 rightarrow mathbbZ^3$ is isomorphism [closed]

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
2
down vote

favorite













Let $ alpha : mathbbZ^3 rightarrow mathbbZ^3$ be a surjective homomorphism. Prove that $alpha$ is isomorphism.




I'm not sure how to approach this... Why does every surjective homomorphism has to be isomorphism?







share|cite|improve this question











closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson Jul 23 at 0:23


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 3




    A finitely generated free group is Hopfian.
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 8:41






  • 2




    @AlexProvost That does not seem particularly relevant! A finitely generated free abelian group is also Hopfian, but that is just a rewording of the problem.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 21 at 14:10










  • @DerekHolt You are right! I merely wanted to introduce the terminology to folks unaware of such a thing. (And I was missing the word Abelian, too, although the statement above is still true, if irrelevant.)
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 16:34










  • @ChikChak: Since both domain and range of $alpha$ have equal and finite cardinality, it does imply that $alpha$ must also be injective.
    – Moritz
    Jul 21 at 22:28















up vote
2
down vote

favorite













Let $ alpha : mathbbZ^3 rightarrow mathbbZ^3$ be a surjective homomorphism. Prove that $alpha$ is isomorphism.




I'm not sure how to approach this... Why does every surjective homomorphism has to be isomorphism?







share|cite|improve this question











closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson Jul 23 at 0:23


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 3




    A finitely generated free group is Hopfian.
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 8:41






  • 2




    @AlexProvost That does not seem particularly relevant! A finitely generated free abelian group is also Hopfian, but that is just a rewording of the problem.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 21 at 14:10










  • @DerekHolt You are right! I merely wanted to introduce the terminology to folks unaware of such a thing. (And I was missing the word Abelian, too, although the statement above is still true, if irrelevant.)
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 16:34










  • @ChikChak: Since both domain and range of $alpha$ have equal and finite cardinality, it does imply that $alpha$ must also be injective.
    – Moritz
    Jul 21 at 22:28













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $ alpha : mathbbZ^3 rightarrow mathbbZ^3$ be a surjective homomorphism. Prove that $alpha$ is isomorphism.




I'm not sure how to approach this... Why does every surjective homomorphism has to be isomorphism?







share|cite|improve this question












Let $ alpha : mathbbZ^3 rightarrow mathbbZ^3$ be a surjective homomorphism. Prove that $alpha$ is isomorphism.




I'm not sure how to approach this... Why does every surjective homomorphism has to be isomorphism?









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 21 at 8:14









ChikChak

617216




617216




closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson Jul 23 at 0:23


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson Jul 23 at 0:23


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Derek Holt, amWhy, Mostafa Ayaz, Parcly Taxel, Xander Henderson
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 3




    A finitely generated free group is Hopfian.
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 8:41






  • 2




    @AlexProvost That does not seem particularly relevant! A finitely generated free abelian group is also Hopfian, but that is just a rewording of the problem.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 21 at 14:10










  • @DerekHolt You are right! I merely wanted to introduce the terminology to folks unaware of such a thing. (And I was missing the word Abelian, too, although the statement above is still true, if irrelevant.)
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 16:34










  • @ChikChak: Since both domain and range of $alpha$ have equal and finite cardinality, it does imply that $alpha$ must also be injective.
    – Moritz
    Jul 21 at 22:28













  • 3




    A finitely generated free group is Hopfian.
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 8:41






  • 2




    @AlexProvost That does not seem particularly relevant! A finitely generated free abelian group is also Hopfian, but that is just a rewording of the problem.
    – Derek Holt
    Jul 21 at 14:10










  • @DerekHolt You are right! I merely wanted to introduce the terminology to folks unaware of such a thing. (And I was missing the word Abelian, too, although the statement above is still true, if irrelevant.)
    – Alex Provost
    Jul 21 at 16:34










  • @ChikChak: Since both domain and range of $alpha$ have equal and finite cardinality, it does imply that $alpha$ must also be injective.
    – Moritz
    Jul 21 at 22:28








3




3




A finitely generated free group is Hopfian.
– Alex Provost
Jul 21 at 8:41




A finitely generated free group is Hopfian.
– Alex Provost
Jul 21 at 8:41




2




2




@AlexProvost That does not seem particularly relevant! A finitely generated free abelian group is also Hopfian, but that is just a rewording of the problem.
– Derek Holt
Jul 21 at 14:10




@AlexProvost That does not seem particularly relevant! A finitely generated free abelian group is also Hopfian, but that is just a rewording of the problem.
– Derek Holt
Jul 21 at 14:10












@DerekHolt You are right! I merely wanted to introduce the terminology to folks unaware of such a thing. (And I was missing the word Abelian, too, although the statement above is still true, if irrelevant.)
– Alex Provost
Jul 21 at 16:34




@DerekHolt You are right! I merely wanted to introduce the terminology to folks unaware of such a thing. (And I was missing the word Abelian, too, although the statement above is still true, if irrelevant.)
– Alex Provost
Jul 21 at 16:34












@ChikChak: Since both domain and range of $alpha$ have equal and finite cardinality, it does imply that $alpha$ must also be injective.
– Moritz
Jul 21 at 22:28





@ChikChak: Since both domain and range of $alpha$ have equal and finite cardinality, it does imply that $alpha$ must also be injective.
– Moritz
Jul 21 at 22:28











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
9
down vote



accepted










Take $v_1=alpha(1,0,0)$, $v_2=alpha(0,1,0)$, and $v_3=alpha(0,0,1)$. Since $alpha$ is surjective, $mathbbZ^3=langle v_1,v_2,v_3rangle$ and therefore $v_1$, $v_2$, and $v_3$ are linearly independent over $mathbb Q$. But then$$(forallalpha_1,alpha_2,alpha_3inmathbbQ):alpha_1v_1+alpha_2v_2+alpha_3v_3=0impliesalpha_1=alpha_2=alpha_3=0.$$In other words, $keralpha=(0,0,0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Here's a more general proof than the one using $mathbbQ$.



    Consider $(mathrmker(alpha^n))_n$: it's an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$, therefore it is stationary : for some $n>0$, $mathrmker(alpha^2n) = mathrmker(alpha^n)$.
    But $alpha^n$ is also surjective, because $alpha$ is. So if $alpha (x)=0$, $alpha^n(x)=0$. But also $x=alpha^n(y) $ for some $y$, so $alpha^2n(y)=0$, so $alpha^n(y) =0$, so $x=0$.



    The only thing I used is that an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$ is stationary. So there are two interesting generalizations : this will work for any group that has this property; but also if $R$ is a noetherian ring, this will work for $R$-linear maps $R^nto R^n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      9
      down vote



      accepted










      Take $v_1=alpha(1,0,0)$, $v_2=alpha(0,1,0)$, and $v_3=alpha(0,0,1)$. Since $alpha$ is surjective, $mathbbZ^3=langle v_1,v_2,v_3rangle$ and therefore $v_1$, $v_2$, and $v_3$ are linearly independent over $mathbb Q$. But then$$(forallalpha_1,alpha_2,alpha_3inmathbbQ):alpha_1v_1+alpha_2v_2+alpha_3v_3=0impliesalpha_1=alpha_2=alpha_3=0.$$In other words, $keralpha=(0,0,0)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        9
        down vote



        accepted










        Take $v_1=alpha(1,0,0)$, $v_2=alpha(0,1,0)$, and $v_3=alpha(0,0,1)$. Since $alpha$ is surjective, $mathbbZ^3=langle v_1,v_2,v_3rangle$ and therefore $v_1$, $v_2$, and $v_3$ are linearly independent over $mathbb Q$. But then$$(forallalpha_1,alpha_2,alpha_3inmathbbQ):alpha_1v_1+alpha_2v_2+alpha_3v_3=0impliesalpha_1=alpha_2=alpha_3=0.$$In other words, $keralpha=(0,0,0)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          9
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          9
          down vote



          accepted






          Take $v_1=alpha(1,0,0)$, $v_2=alpha(0,1,0)$, and $v_3=alpha(0,0,1)$. Since $alpha$ is surjective, $mathbbZ^3=langle v_1,v_2,v_3rangle$ and therefore $v_1$, $v_2$, and $v_3$ are linearly independent over $mathbb Q$. But then$$(forallalpha_1,alpha_2,alpha_3inmathbbQ):alpha_1v_1+alpha_2v_2+alpha_3v_3=0impliesalpha_1=alpha_2=alpha_3=0.$$In other words, $keralpha=(0,0,0)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Take $v_1=alpha(1,0,0)$, $v_2=alpha(0,1,0)$, and $v_3=alpha(0,0,1)$. Since $alpha$ is surjective, $mathbbZ^3=langle v_1,v_2,v_3rangle$ and therefore $v_1$, $v_2$, and $v_3$ are linearly independent over $mathbb Q$. But then$$(forallalpha_1,alpha_2,alpha_3inmathbbQ):alpha_1v_1+alpha_2v_2+alpha_3v_3=0impliesalpha_1=alpha_2=alpha_3=0.$$In other words, $keralpha=(0,0,0)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 27 at 13:03


























          answered Jul 21 at 8:30









          José Carlos Santos

          114k1698177




          114k1698177




















              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Here's a more general proof than the one using $mathbbQ$.



              Consider $(mathrmker(alpha^n))_n$: it's an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$, therefore it is stationary : for some $n>0$, $mathrmker(alpha^2n) = mathrmker(alpha^n)$.
              But $alpha^n$ is also surjective, because $alpha$ is. So if $alpha (x)=0$, $alpha^n(x)=0$. But also $x=alpha^n(y) $ for some $y$, so $alpha^2n(y)=0$, so $alpha^n(y) =0$, so $x=0$.



              The only thing I used is that an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$ is stationary. So there are two interesting generalizations : this will work for any group that has this property; but also if $R$ is a noetherian ring, this will work for $R$-linear maps $R^nto R^n$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                Here's a more general proof than the one using $mathbbQ$.



                Consider $(mathrmker(alpha^n))_n$: it's an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$, therefore it is stationary : for some $n>0$, $mathrmker(alpha^2n) = mathrmker(alpha^n)$.
                But $alpha^n$ is also surjective, because $alpha$ is. So if $alpha (x)=0$, $alpha^n(x)=0$. But also $x=alpha^n(y) $ for some $y$, so $alpha^2n(y)=0$, so $alpha^n(y) =0$, so $x=0$.



                The only thing I used is that an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$ is stationary. So there are two interesting generalizations : this will work for any group that has this property; but also if $R$ is a noetherian ring, this will work for $R$-linear maps $R^nto R^n$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  Here's a more general proof than the one using $mathbbQ$.



                  Consider $(mathrmker(alpha^n))_n$: it's an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$, therefore it is stationary : for some $n>0$, $mathrmker(alpha^2n) = mathrmker(alpha^n)$.
                  But $alpha^n$ is also surjective, because $alpha$ is. So if $alpha (x)=0$, $alpha^n(x)=0$. But also $x=alpha^n(y) $ for some $y$, so $alpha^2n(y)=0$, so $alpha^n(y) =0$, so $x=0$.



                  The only thing I used is that an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$ is stationary. So there are two interesting generalizations : this will work for any group that has this property; but also if $R$ is a noetherian ring, this will work for $R$-linear maps $R^nto R^n$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Here's a more general proof than the one using $mathbbQ$.



                  Consider $(mathrmker(alpha^n))_n$: it's an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$, therefore it is stationary : for some $n>0$, $mathrmker(alpha^2n) = mathrmker(alpha^n)$.
                  But $alpha^n$ is also surjective, because $alpha$ is. So if $alpha (x)=0$, $alpha^n(x)=0$. But also $x=alpha^n(y) $ for some $y$, so $alpha^2n(y)=0$, so $alpha^n(y) =0$, so $x=0$.



                  The only thing I used is that an increasing sequence of subgroups of $mathbbZ^3$ is stationary. So there are two interesting generalizations : this will work for any group that has this property; but also if $R$ is a noetherian ring, this will work for $R$-linear maps $R^nto R^n$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 21 at 9:16









                  Max

                  9,8801635




                  9,8801635












                      Comments

                      Popular posts from this blog

                      What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

                      Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

                      Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?