$f$ is uniformly continuity

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Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.



My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$







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  • But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
    – ncmathsadist
    Aug 6 at 15:28














up vote
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down vote

favorite
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Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.



My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$







share|cite|improve this question



















  • But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
    – ncmathsadist
    Aug 6 at 15:28












up vote
10
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
10
down vote

favorite
3






3





Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.



My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$







share|cite|improve this question











Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.



My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$









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asked Aug 6 at 15:22









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  • But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
    – ncmathsadist
    Aug 6 at 15:28
















  • But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
    – ncmathsadist
    Aug 6 at 15:28















But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28




But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28










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Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.



We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
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    active

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    up vote
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    accepted










    Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.



    We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.



      We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
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        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
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        down vote



        accepted






        Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.



        We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.



        We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.







        share|cite|improve this answer













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        answered Aug 6 at 15:51









        Akababa

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