$f$ is uniformly continuity
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.
My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$
real-analysis continuity uniform-continuity
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.
My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$
real-analysis continuity uniform-continuity
But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.
My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$
real-analysis continuity uniform-continuity
Let $f:mathbbRto mathbbR$ be a bounded continuous function. Suppose for any $yin mathbbR$, $f^-1(y)$ is the empty set or a finite set. Then $f$ is uniformly continuous.
My idea :If $f$ is not uniformly continuous, there exists $a_n, b_n$ and $epsilon $ s.t., $|a_n-b_n|leq frac1n$ $|f(a_n)-f(b_n)|>epsilon$ . $f$ is bounded, so I can take convergence subsequence. But I don't know how to use cardinality of $f^-1(y)$
real-analysis continuity uniform-continuity
asked Aug 6 at 15:22
B.T.O
251111
251111
But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28
add a comment |Â
But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28
But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28
But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.
We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.
We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.
We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.
We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.
Take $epsilon>0$. Consider the sequence $f(1),f(2),...$ which has a limit point $C$ by Bolzano-Weierstrass. Since $f^-1(C)$ is finite/empty and $f$ is continuous, it cannot cross $C$ infinitely many times, so assume WLOG that $f(x)<C$ for all sufficiently large $x$. Similarly $f$ can't cross $C-epsilon$ infinitely many times, so for all large enough $x$ we have $f(x)in (C-epsilon,C)$ (as $C$ is a limit point, so there are infinitely many $f(x)$ in that range). Say this holds for $x>B$, which means $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (B,infty)$.
We can do a similar thing to find $A$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $x,yin (-infty,A)$, and note that $[A-1,B+1]$ is compact, so $f$ is uniformly continuous on that interval, so we can find $delta<1$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$ for $|x-y|<delta$. Therefore $f$ is uniformly continuous on $mathbb R$.
answered Aug 6 at 15:51


Akababa
2,557922
2,557922
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2873989%2ff-is-uniformly-continuity%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
But what if the two sequences run off to $infty$?
– ncmathsadist
Aug 6 at 15:28