Increase of free parameters in perturbed solution of an ODE

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Lets take the ODE



beginequation
ODE0: qquad fracpartial y_0partial x = F(y_0,x)
endequation



with known solution $y_0(c_0)$, where $c_0$ is (are) the free parameter(s) that I will fix by exploiting the initial conditions.



Lets now take



beginequation labeleq:q_1
ODE1: qquad fracpartial ypartial x = F(y,x) + beta ; G(y,x) ; ,
endequation



which instead I am not able to solve exactly. It looks reasonable to me to take



$y simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1 ; ,$



as an approximated solution of this new ODE1.



I now suppose to be able to rewrite ODE1 as



$fracpartial y_1partial x simeq H(y_1,y_0,x) ; .$



I also suppose I am able to find a solution $y_1(c_1)$ for this one.



Conclusively I have



$y(c_0,c_1) simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1(c_1) ; ,$



which is an approximated solution for ODE1. However $y$ depends on an higher number of free parameters w.r.t. $y_0$ ($c_0$ and $c_1$, instead of just $c_0$), despite being a solution of an equation of the same order (i.e. ODE0).



This seems to not add up from any side I look at it.
Shouldn't the amount of free parameters remain invariant, and equal to the order of the ODE?
Is there some fallacy in my reasoning?



Thank you very much in advance for all the help you may give.




NOTE:
I tried defining the problem in a way as general as possible, so to make it interesting for a wide group of people.
The problem is indeed general in my mind, but it arose in a pretty specific situation.







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    down vote

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    Lets take the ODE



    beginequation
    ODE0: qquad fracpartial y_0partial x = F(y_0,x)
    endequation



    with known solution $y_0(c_0)$, where $c_0$ is (are) the free parameter(s) that I will fix by exploiting the initial conditions.



    Lets now take



    beginequation labeleq:q_1
    ODE1: qquad fracpartial ypartial x = F(y,x) + beta ; G(y,x) ; ,
    endequation



    which instead I am not able to solve exactly. It looks reasonable to me to take



    $y simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1 ; ,$



    as an approximated solution of this new ODE1.



    I now suppose to be able to rewrite ODE1 as



    $fracpartial y_1partial x simeq H(y_1,y_0,x) ; .$



    I also suppose I am able to find a solution $y_1(c_1)$ for this one.



    Conclusively I have



    $y(c_0,c_1) simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1(c_1) ; ,$



    which is an approximated solution for ODE1. However $y$ depends on an higher number of free parameters w.r.t. $y_0$ ($c_0$ and $c_1$, instead of just $c_0$), despite being a solution of an equation of the same order (i.e. ODE0).



    This seems to not add up from any side I look at it.
    Shouldn't the amount of free parameters remain invariant, and equal to the order of the ODE?
    Is there some fallacy in my reasoning?



    Thank you very much in advance for all the help you may give.




    NOTE:
    I tried defining the problem in a way as general as possible, so to make it interesting for a wide group of people.
    The problem is indeed general in my mind, but it arose in a pretty specific situation.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Lets take the ODE



      beginequation
      ODE0: qquad fracpartial y_0partial x = F(y_0,x)
      endequation



      with known solution $y_0(c_0)$, where $c_0$ is (are) the free parameter(s) that I will fix by exploiting the initial conditions.



      Lets now take



      beginequation labeleq:q_1
      ODE1: qquad fracpartial ypartial x = F(y,x) + beta ; G(y,x) ; ,
      endequation



      which instead I am not able to solve exactly. It looks reasonable to me to take



      $y simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1 ; ,$



      as an approximated solution of this new ODE1.



      I now suppose to be able to rewrite ODE1 as



      $fracpartial y_1partial x simeq H(y_1,y_0,x) ; .$



      I also suppose I am able to find a solution $y_1(c_1)$ for this one.



      Conclusively I have



      $y(c_0,c_1) simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1(c_1) ; ,$



      which is an approximated solution for ODE1. However $y$ depends on an higher number of free parameters w.r.t. $y_0$ ($c_0$ and $c_1$, instead of just $c_0$), despite being a solution of an equation of the same order (i.e. ODE0).



      This seems to not add up from any side I look at it.
      Shouldn't the amount of free parameters remain invariant, and equal to the order of the ODE?
      Is there some fallacy in my reasoning?



      Thank you very much in advance for all the help you may give.




      NOTE:
      I tried defining the problem in a way as general as possible, so to make it interesting for a wide group of people.
      The problem is indeed general in my mind, but it arose in a pretty specific situation.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Lets take the ODE



      beginequation
      ODE0: qquad fracpartial y_0partial x = F(y_0,x)
      endequation



      with known solution $y_0(c_0)$, where $c_0$ is (are) the free parameter(s) that I will fix by exploiting the initial conditions.



      Lets now take



      beginequation labeleq:q_1
      ODE1: qquad fracpartial ypartial x = F(y,x) + beta ; G(y,x) ; ,
      endequation



      which instead I am not able to solve exactly. It looks reasonable to me to take



      $y simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1 ; ,$



      as an approximated solution of this new ODE1.



      I now suppose to be able to rewrite ODE1 as



      $fracpartial y_1partial x simeq H(y_1,y_0,x) ; .$



      I also suppose I am able to find a solution $y_1(c_1)$ for this one.



      Conclusively I have



      $y(c_0,c_1) simeq y_0(c_0) + beta , y_1(c_1) ; ,$



      which is an approximated solution for ODE1. However $y$ depends on an higher number of free parameters w.r.t. $y_0$ ($c_0$ and $c_1$, instead of just $c_0$), despite being a solution of an equation of the same order (i.e. ODE0).



      This seems to not add up from any side I look at it.
      Shouldn't the amount of free parameters remain invariant, and equal to the order of the ODE?
      Is there some fallacy in my reasoning?



      Thank you very much in advance for all the help you may give.




      NOTE:
      I tried defining the problem in a way as general as possible, so to make it interesting for a wide group of people.
      The problem is indeed general in my mind, but it arose in a pretty specific situation.









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      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 22 at 18:50









      CosimoDS

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