Prob. 5 (e), Sec. 4.3, in Bartle & Sherbert's INTRO TO REAL ANALYSIS: How to find $lim_xto 0- fracsqrtx+1x$?

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1
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I know that
$$ lim_x to 0+ frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty. $$



Now how to find
$$ lim_x to 0- frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty? $$



This is Prob. 5 (e), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



My Attempt:




The function $f$ given by
$$ f(x) colon= frac sqrt x+1 x $$
is defined only for real numbers $x geq -1$. Moreover, $f(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$.



If $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ 0 < sqrt x+1 < 1, $$
and so
$$ frac1x < frac sqrt x+1 x < 0. tag1 $$



Also if $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ -frac1x > 1, $$
and as $sqrtx+1 > 0$, so
$$ - frac sqrt x+1 x > sqrtx+1, $$
and hence
$$ frac sqrt x+1 x < - sqrtx+1. $$




What to do here?



I've really no clue of what to do. I would like to be able to majorise this function by one tending to $-infty$ as $x to 0-$, or I would like to bound this function between two functions that both have the same limit as $x to 0-$.



Or, does the limit exist at all in the extended real number system $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • I think you are wrong, it should be $-infty$.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 6 at 15:40










  • Intuitively numerator tends to 1 and numerator to 0 from the negative side therefore the LHS limit is $-infty$. To show that rigoursly we can use for example squeeze theorem.
    – gimusi
    Aug 6 at 15:45















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I know that
$$ lim_x to 0+ frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty. $$



Now how to find
$$ lim_x to 0- frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty? $$



This is Prob. 5 (e), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



My Attempt:




The function $f$ given by
$$ f(x) colon= frac sqrt x+1 x $$
is defined only for real numbers $x geq -1$. Moreover, $f(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$.



If $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ 0 < sqrt x+1 < 1, $$
and so
$$ frac1x < frac sqrt x+1 x < 0. tag1 $$



Also if $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ -frac1x > 1, $$
and as $sqrtx+1 > 0$, so
$$ - frac sqrt x+1 x > sqrtx+1, $$
and hence
$$ frac sqrt x+1 x < - sqrtx+1. $$




What to do here?



I've really no clue of what to do. I would like to be able to majorise this function by one tending to $-infty$ as $x to 0-$, or I would like to bound this function between two functions that both have the same limit as $x to 0-$.



Or, does the limit exist at all in the extended real number system $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • I think you are wrong, it should be $-infty$.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 6 at 15:40










  • Intuitively numerator tends to 1 and numerator to 0 from the negative side therefore the LHS limit is $-infty$. To show that rigoursly we can use for example squeeze theorem.
    – gimusi
    Aug 6 at 15:45













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I know that
$$ lim_x to 0+ frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty. $$



Now how to find
$$ lim_x to 0- frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty? $$



This is Prob. 5 (e), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



My Attempt:




The function $f$ given by
$$ f(x) colon= frac sqrt x+1 x $$
is defined only for real numbers $x geq -1$. Moreover, $f(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$.



If $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ 0 < sqrt x+1 < 1, $$
and so
$$ frac1x < frac sqrt x+1 x < 0. tag1 $$



Also if $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ -frac1x > 1, $$
and as $sqrtx+1 > 0$, so
$$ - frac sqrt x+1 x > sqrtx+1, $$
and hence
$$ frac sqrt x+1 x < - sqrtx+1. $$




What to do here?



I've really no clue of what to do. I would like to be able to majorise this function by one tending to $-infty$ as $x to 0-$, or I would like to bound this function between two functions that both have the same limit as $x to 0-$.



Or, does the limit exist at all in the extended real number system $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$?







share|cite|improve this question













I know that
$$ lim_x to 0+ frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty. $$



Now how to find
$$ lim_x to 0- frac sqrt x+1 x = +infty? $$



This is Prob. 5 (e), Sec. 4.3, in the book Introduction To Real Analysis by Robert G. Bartle and Donald R. Sherbert, 4th edition.



My Attempt:




The function $f$ given by
$$ f(x) colon= frac sqrt x+1 x $$
is defined only for real numbers $x geq -1$. Moreover, $f(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$.



If $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ 0 < sqrt x+1 < 1, $$
and so
$$ frac1x < frac sqrt x+1 x < 0. tag1 $$



Also if $-1 < x < 0$, then
$$ -frac1x > 1, $$
and as $sqrtx+1 > 0$, so
$$ - frac sqrt x+1 x > sqrtx+1, $$
and hence
$$ frac sqrt x+1 x < - sqrtx+1. $$




What to do here?



I've really no clue of what to do. I would like to be able to majorise this function by one tending to $-infty$ as $x to 0-$, or I would like to bound this function between two functions that both have the same limit as $x to 0-$.



Or, does the limit exist at all in the extended real number system $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 6 at 15:44
























asked Aug 6 at 15:33









Saaqib Mahmood

7,17542169




7,17542169











  • I think you are wrong, it should be $-infty$.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 6 at 15:40










  • Intuitively numerator tends to 1 and numerator to 0 from the negative side therefore the LHS limit is $-infty$. To show that rigoursly we can use for example squeeze theorem.
    – gimusi
    Aug 6 at 15:45

















  • I think you are wrong, it should be $-infty$.
    – mathreadler
    Aug 6 at 15:40










  • Intuitively numerator tends to 1 and numerator to 0 from the negative side therefore the LHS limit is $-infty$. To show that rigoursly we can use for example squeeze theorem.
    – gimusi
    Aug 6 at 15:45
















I think you are wrong, it should be $-infty$.
– mathreadler
Aug 6 at 15:40




I think you are wrong, it should be $-infty$.
– mathreadler
Aug 6 at 15:40












Intuitively numerator tends to 1 and numerator to 0 from the negative side therefore the LHS limit is $-infty$. To show that rigoursly we can use for example squeeze theorem.
– gimusi
Aug 6 at 15:45





Intuitively numerator tends to 1 and numerator to 0 from the negative side therefore the LHS limit is $-infty$. To show that rigoursly we can use for example squeeze theorem.
– gimusi
Aug 6 at 15:45











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










$$ fracsqrtx + 1x
=fracx + 1xsqrtx + 1
=frac1sqrtx + 1 + frac1xsqrtx + 1
to -infty quad textas quad x to 0^-
$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Very nice approach!
    – gimusi
    Aug 6 at 16:06










  • @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
    – Saaqib Mahmood
    Aug 6 at 17:33


















up vote
3
down vote













We have that as $xto 0^+$



$$frac sqrt x+1 xge frac 1 x to infty$$



and as $xto 0^-$ let $y=-x to 0^+$ eventually as $sqrt 1-y ge frac12$



$$frac sqrt x+1 x=-frac sqrt 1-y yle -frac 1 2y to -infty$$



therefore the limit doesn't exist but the one side limits exist in $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    The stated result isn't right. $1/x to -infty$ as $xto 0^-$. The numerator is bounded and positive near $x=0$, so the answer remains the same. A full proof: Since $sqrt1+x$ is increasing in $x$,



    $$ fracsqrt1+xx ≤ fracsqrt1+0x = frac1x to -infty quad (xto 0^-) $$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      $$ fracsqrtx + 1x
      =fracx + 1xsqrtx + 1
      =frac1sqrtx + 1 + frac1xsqrtx + 1
      to -infty quad textas quad x to 0^-
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Very nice approach!
        – gimusi
        Aug 6 at 16:06










      • @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
        – Saaqib Mahmood
        Aug 6 at 17:33















      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      $$ fracsqrtx + 1x
      =fracx + 1xsqrtx + 1
      =frac1sqrtx + 1 + frac1xsqrtx + 1
      to -infty quad textas quad x to 0^-
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Very nice approach!
        – gimusi
        Aug 6 at 16:06










      • @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
        – Saaqib Mahmood
        Aug 6 at 17:33













      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted






      $$ fracsqrtx + 1x
      =fracx + 1xsqrtx + 1
      =frac1sqrtx + 1 + frac1xsqrtx + 1
      to -infty quad textas quad x to 0^-
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer













      $$ fracsqrtx + 1x
      =fracx + 1xsqrtx + 1
      =frac1sqrtx + 1 + frac1xsqrtx + 1
      to -infty quad textas quad x to 0^-
      $$







      share|cite|improve this answer













      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer











      answered Aug 6 at 15:54









      steven gregory

      16.5k22055




      16.5k22055











      • Very nice approach!
        – gimusi
        Aug 6 at 16:06










      • @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
        – Saaqib Mahmood
        Aug 6 at 17:33

















      • Very nice approach!
        – gimusi
        Aug 6 at 16:06










      • @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
        – Saaqib Mahmood
        Aug 6 at 17:33
















      Very nice approach!
      – gimusi
      Aug 6 at 16:06




      Very nice approach!
      – gimusi
      Aug 6 at 16:06












      @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
      – Saaqib Mahmood
      Aug 6 at 17:33





      @stevengregory thank you very much for such a beautiful answer! I should be cross with myself for not being able to figure it out on my own!
      – Saaqib Mahmood
      Aug 6 at 17:33











      up vote
      3
      down vote













      We have that as $xto 0^+$



      $$frac sqrt x+1 xge frac 1 x to infty$$



      and as $xto 0^-$ let $y=-x to 0^+$ eventually as $sqrt 1-y ge frac12$



      $$frac sqrt x+1 x=-frac sqrt 1-y yle -frac 1 2y to -infty$$



      therefore the limit doesn't exist but the one side limits exist in $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        3
        down vote













        We have that as $xto 0^+$



        $$frac sqrt x+1 xge frac 1 x to infty$$



        and as $xto 0^-$ let $y=-x to 0^+$ eventually as $sqrt 1-y ge frac12$



        $$frac sqrt x+1 x=-frac sqrt 1-y yle -frac 1 2y to -infty$$



        therefore the limit doesn't exist but the one side limits exist in $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          We have that as $xto 0^+$



          $$frac sqrt x+1 xge frac 1 x to infty$$



          and as $xto 0^-$ let $y=-x to 0^+$ eventually as $sqrt 1-y ge frac12$



          $$frac sqrt x+1 x=-frac sqrt 1-y yle -frac 1 2y to -infty$$



          therefore the limit doesn't exist but the one side limits exist in $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          We have that as $xto 0^+$



          $$frac sqrt x+1 xge frac 1 x to infty$$



          and as $xto 0^-$ let $y=-x to 0^+$ eventually as $sqrt 1-y ge frac12$



          $$frac sqrt x+1 x=-frac sqrt 1-y yle -frac 1 2y to -infty$$



          therefore the limit doesn't exist but the one side limits exist in $mathbbR cup left pm infty right$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Aug 6 at 15:36









          gimusi

          65.4k73684




          65.4k73684




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              The stated result isn't right. $1/x to -infty$ as $xto 0^-$. The numerator is bounded and positive near $x=0$, so the answer remains the same. A full proof: Since $sqrt1+x$ is increasing in $x$,



              $$ fracsqrt1+xx ≤ fracsqrt1+0x = frac1x to -infty quad (xto 0^-) $$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                The stated result isn't right. $1/x to -infty$ as $xto 0^-$. The numerator is bounded and positive near $x=0$, so the answer remains the same. A full proof: Since $sqrt1+x$ is increasing in $x$,



                $$ fracsqrt1+xx ≤ fracsqrt1+0x = frac1x to -infty quad (xto 0^-) $$






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  The stated result isn't right. $1/x to -infty$ as $xto 0^-$. The numerator is bounded and positive near $x=0$, so the answer remains the same. A full proof: Since $sqrt1+x$ is increasing in $x$,



                  $$ fracsqrt1+xx ≤ fracsqrt1+0x = frac1x to -infty quad (xto 0^-) $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  The stated result isn't right. $1/x to -infty$ as $xto 0^-$. The numerator is bounded and positive near $x=0$, so the answer remains the same. A full proof: Since $sqrt1+x$ is increasing in $x$,



                  $$ fracsqrt1+xx ≤ fracsqrt1+0x = frac1x to -infty quad (xto 0^-) $$







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Aug 6 at 15:41









                  Calvin Khor

                  8,18411133




                  8,18411133






















                       

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