Proof that every arithmetic progression which might contain a prime does so.

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It's been bugging me all afternoon - is there an easy proof that if $gcd(a,b) = 1$ there is a prime number $p$ of the form $p = an+b$?
I'm aware of Dirichlet's theorem that there are in fact infinitely many primes of this form but am hoping there is an elementary proof of this weaker form.



The fact that I have been unable to find any proof of this online suggests to me that it's in fact very easy and I am simply missing something obvious.







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  • 3




    It's not hard to deduce the full form of Dirichlet from this special case.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 25 at 16:32






  • 2




    For any $k$ there is a prime of the form $a^kn+b$.
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:41






  • 2




    Correct. $$
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:47






  • 1




    Thank you 🙂 you've dissolved my problem
    – Andrew
    Jul 25 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it's hard to prove, @AndrewSlattery. Whether it implies the full Dirichlet theorem depends on what precisely one considers the full theorem. What Dirichlet proved was more than just that there are infinitely many primes in every arithmetic progression $an + b$ with $gcd(a,b) = 1$, he proved that the sum of the reciprocals of the primes in such a progression diverges (and even some more). That "each such progression contains at least one prime" implies "each such progression contains infinitely many primes" is easy, but getting to "the sum of the reciprocals diverges" isn't.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Jul 25 at 18:34














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












It's been bugging me all afternoon - is there an easy proof that if $gcd(a,b) = 1$ there is a prime number $p$ of the form $p = an+b$?
I'm aware of Dirichlet's theorem that there are in fact infinitely many primes of this form but am hoping there is an elementary proof of this weaker form.



The fact that I have been unable to find any proof of this online suggests to me that it's in fact very easy and I am simply missing something obvious.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 3




    It's not hard to deduce the full form of Dirichlet from this special case.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 25 at 16:32






  • 2




    For any $k$ there is a prime of the form $a^kn+b$.
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:41






  • 2




    Correct. $$
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:47






  • 1




    Thank you 🙂 you've dissolved my problem
    – Andrew
    Jul 25 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it's hard to prove, @AndrewSlattery. Whether it implies the full Dirichlet theorem depends on what precisely one considers the full theorem. What Dirichlet proved was more than just that there are infinitely many primes in every arithmetic progression $an + b$ with $gcd(a,b) = 1$, he proved that the sum of the reciprocals of the primes in such a progression diverges (and even some more). That "each such progression contains at least one prime" implies "each such progression contains infinitely many primes" is easy, but getting to "the sum of the reciprocals diverges" isn't.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Jul 25 at 18:34












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











It's been bugging me all afternoon - is there an easy proof that if $gcd(a,b) = 1$ there is a prime number $p$ of the form $p = an+b$?
I'm aware of Dirichlet's theorem that there are in fact infinitely many primes of this form but am hoping there is an elementary proof of this weaker form.



The fact that I have been unable to find any proof of this online suggests to me that it's in fact very easy and I am simply missing something obvious.







share|cite|improve this question













It's been bugging me all afternoon - is there an easy proof that if $gcd(a,b) = 1$ there is a prime number $p$ of the form $p = an+b$?
I'm aware of Dirichlet's theorem that there are in fact infinitely many primes of this form but am hoping there is an elementary proof of this weaker form.



The fact that I have been unable to find any proof of this online suggests to me that it's in fact very easy and I am simply missing something obvious.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 28 at 17:09









Daniel Buck

2,3041623




2,3041623









asked Jul 25 at 16:31









Andrew

871211




871211







  • 3




    It's not hard to deduce the full form of Dirichlet from this special case.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 25 at 16:32






  • 2




    For any $k$ there is a prime of the form $a^kn+b$.
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:41






  • 2




    Correct. $$
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:47






  • 1




    Thank you 🙂 you've dissolved my problem
    – Andrew
    Jul 25 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it's hard to prove, @AndrewSlattery. Whether it implies the full Dirichlet theorem depends on what precisely one considers the full theorem. What Dirichlet proved was more than just that there are infinitely many primes in every arithmetic progression $an + b$ with $gcd(a,b) = 1$, he proved that the sum of the reciprocals of the primes in such a progression diverges (and even some more). That "each such progression contains at least one prime" implies "each such progression contains infinitely many primes" is easy, but getting to "the sum of the reciprocals diverges" isn't.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Jul 25 at 18:34












  • 3




    It's not hard to deduce the full form of Dirichlet from this special case.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 25 at 16:32






  • 2




    For any $k$ there is a prime of the form $a^kn+b$.
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:41






  • 2




    Correct. $$
    – Wojowu
    Jul 25 at 16:47






  • 1




    Thank you 🙂 you've dissolved my problem
    – Andrew
    Jul 25 at 16:58






  • 2




    Yes, it's hard to prove, @AndrewSlattery. Whether it implies the full Dirichlet theorem depends on what precisely one considers the full theorem. What Dirichlet proved was more than just that there are infinitely many primes in every arithmetic progression $an + b$ with $gcd(a,b) = 1$, he proved that the sum of the reciprocals of the primes in such a progression diverges (and even some more). That "each such progression contains at least one prime" implies "each such progression contains infinitely many primes" is easy, but getting to "the sum of the reciprocals diverges" isn't.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Jul 25 at 18:34







3




3




It's not hard to deduce the full form of Dirichlet from this special case.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 25 at 16:32




It's not hard to deduce the full form of Dirichlet from this special case.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 25 at 16:32




2




2




For any $k$ there is a prime of the form $a^kn+b$.
– Wojowu
Jul 25 at 16:41




For any $k$ there is a prime of the form $a^kn+b$.
– Wojowu
Jul 25 at 16:41




2




2




Correct. $$
– Wojowu
Jul 25 at 16:47




Correct. $$
– Wojowu
Jul 25 at 16:47




1




1




Thank you 🙂 you've dissolved my problem
– Andrew
Jul 25 at 16:58




Thank you 🙂 you've dissolved my problem
– Andrew
Jul 25 at 16:58




2




2




Yes, it's hard to prove, @AndrewSlattery. Whether it implies the full Dirichlet theorem depends on what precisely one considers the full theorem. What Dirichlet proved was more than just that there are infinitely many primes in every arithmetic progression $an + b$ with $gcd(a,b) = 1$, he proved that the sum of the reciprocals of the primes in such a progression diverges (and even some more). That "each such progression contains at least one prime" implies "each such progression contains infinitely many primes" is easy, but getting to "the sum of the reciprocals diverges" isn't.
– Daniel Fischer♦
Jul 25 at 18:34




Yes, it's hard to prove, @AndrewSlattery. Whether it implies the full Dirichlet theorem depends on what precisely one considers the full theorem. What Dirichlet proved was more than just that there are infinitely many primes in every arithmetic progression $an + b$ with $gcd(a,b) = 1$, he proved that the sum of the reciprocals of the primes in such a progression diverges (and even some more). That "each such progression contains at least one prime" implies "each such progression contains infinitely many primes" is easy, but getting to "the sum of the reciprocals diverges" isn't.
– Daniel Fischer♦
Jul 25 at 18:34















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