What is wrong with the derivation?

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I want to evaluate



$$int_0^inftyfrace^jtx(1+x)^2,dx$$



where $j=sqrt-1$ and $t$ is a real number. I did this change of variables $y=1/(1+x)$, which resulted in the integration



$$-int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac1jt$$



As you can see, the original integral is actually the characteristic function of a random variable with a PDF $f_X(x)=(1+x)^-2$, and one of the properties of the characteristic function is that its value at $0$ is $1$, which isn't the case in my result, and the characteristic function always exists.



What's wrong with the derivation?



EDIT 1: I evaluated $dy=fracdx(1+x)^2$, while it should be $dy=frac-dx(1+x)^2$. So, the integral becomes



$$int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 2: I forgot to the scaling factor $e^jt$, but the final result is still true. So, the integral is



$$e^jtint_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 3: The indefinte integral is evaluated as



$$e^jtint e^jt/y,dy = frac-e^jtjt,y^2e^jt/y$$







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    If $y= frac 1(1+x), $ then $x = frac 1y -1$, and $dx = -frac 1y^2 dy $
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:31











  • $dy = -fracdx(1+x)^2$, so, the $fracdx(1+x)^2$ part in the integral can be substituted by $-dy$. I think I just forgot the minus sign, but otherwise, we agree. The problem still presents though.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 14:40











  • $x neq frac 1y$. Rather, $x = frac 1y - 1$, given your substitution $y= frac 11+x$.
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:47











  • Right, sorry, I forgot a term outside the integral. The final result is correct though. I will edit the original post.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:04














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I want to evaluate



$$int_0^inftyfrace^jtx(1+x)^2,dx$$



where $j=sqrt-1$ and $t$ is a real number. I did this change of variables $y=1/(1+x)$, which resulted in the integration



$$-int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac1jt$$



As you can see, the original integral is actually the characteristic function of a random variable with a PDF $f_X(x)=(1+x)^-2$, and one of the properties of the characteristic function is that its value at $0$ is $1$, which isn't the case in my result, and the characteristic function always exists.



What's wrong with the derivation?



EDIT 1: I evaluated $dy=fracdx(1+x)^2$, while it should be $dy=frac-dx(1+x)^2$. So, the integral becomes



$$int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 2: I forgot to the scaling factor $e^jt$, but the final result is still true. So, the integral is



$$e^jtint_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 3: The indefinte integral is evaluated as



$$e^jtint e^jt/y,dy = frac-e^jtjt,y^2e^jt/y$$







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    If $y= frac 1(1+x), $ then $x = frac 1y -1$, and $dx = -frac 1y^2 dy $
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:31











  • $dy = -fracdx(1+x)^2$, so, the $fracdx(1+x)^2$ part in the integral can be substituted by $-dy$. I think I just forgot the minus sign, but otherwise, we agree. The problem still presents though.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 14:40











  • $x neq frac 1y$. Rather, $x = frac 1y - 1$, given your substitution $y= frac 11+x$.
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:47











  • Right, sorry, I forgot a term outside the integral. The final result is correct though. I will edit the original post.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:04












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I want to evaluate



$$int_0^inftyfrace^jtx(1+x)^2,dx$$



where $j=sqrt-1$ and $t$ is a real number. I did this change of variables $y=1/(1+x)$, which resulted in the integration



$$-int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac1jt$$



As you can see, the original integral is actually the characteristic function of a random variable with a PDF $f_X(x)=(1+x)^-2$, and one of the properties of the characteristic function is that its value at $0$ is $1$, which isn't the case in my result, and the characteristic function always exists.



What's wrong with the derivation?



EDIT 1: I evaluated $dy=fracdx(1+x)^2$, while it should be $dy=frac-dx(1+x)^2$. So, the integral becomes



$$int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 2: I forgot to the scaling factor $e^jt$, but the final result is still true. So, the integral is



$$e^jtint_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 3: The indefinte integral is evaluated as



$$e^jtint e^jt/y,dy = frac-e^jtjt,y^2e^jt/y$$







share|cite|improve this question













I want to evaluate



$$int_0^inftyfrace^jtx(1+x)^2,dx$$



where $j=sqrt-1$ and $t$ is a real number. I did this change of variables $y=1/(1+x)$, which resulted in the integration



$$-int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac1jt$$



As you can see, the original integral is actually the characteristic function of a random variable with a PDF $f_X(x)=(1+x)^-2$, and one of the properties of the characteristic function is that its value at $0$ is $1$, which isn't the case in my result, and the characteristic function always exists.



What's wrong with the derivation?



EDIT 1: I evaluated $dy=fracdx(1+x)^2$, while it should be $dy=frac-dx(1+x)^2$. So, the integral becomes



$$int_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 2: I forgot to the scaling factor $e^jt$, but the final result is still true. So, the integral is



$$e^jtint_0^1e^jt/y,dy=frac-1jt$$



EDIT 3: The indefinte integral is evaluated as



$$e^jtint e^jt/y,dy = frac-e^jtjt,y^2e^jt/y$$









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 6 at 17:30
























asked Aug 6 at 14:27









BlackMath

948




948







  • 1




    If $y= frac 1(1+x), $ then $x = frac 1y -1$, and $dx = -frac 1y^2 dy $
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:31











  • $dy = -fracdx(1+x)^2$, so, the $fracdx(1+x)^2$ part in the integral can be substituted by $-dy$. I think I just forgot the minus sign, but otherwise, we agree. The problem still presents though.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 14:40











  • $x neq frac 1y$. Rather, $x = frac 1y - 1$, given your substitution $y= frac 11+x$.
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:47











  • Right, sorry, I forgot a term outside the integral. The final result is correct though. I will edit the original post.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:04












  • 1




    If $y= frac 1(1+x), $ then $x = frac 1y -1$, and $dx = -frac 1y^2 dy $
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:31











  • $dy = -fracdx(1+x)^2$, so, the $fracdx(1+x)^2$ part in the integral can be substituted by $-dy$. I think I just forgot the minus sign, but otherwise, we agree. The problem still presents though.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 14:40











  • $x neq frac 1y$. Rather, $x = frac 1y - 1$, given your substitution $y= frac 11+x$.
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:47











  • Right, sorry, I forgot a term outside the integral. The final result is correct though. I will edit the original post.
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:04







1




1




If $y= frac 1(1+x), $ then $x = frac 1y -1$, and $dx = -frac 1y^2 dy $
– amWhy
Aug 6 at 14:31





If $y= frac 1(1+x), $ then $x = frac 1y -1$, and $dx = -frac 1y^2 dy $
– amWhy
Aug 6 at 14:31













$dy = -fracdx(1+x)^2$, so, the $fracdx(1+x)^2$ part in the integral can be substituted by $-dy$. I think I just forgot the minus sign, but otherwise, we agree. The problem still presents though.
– BlackMath
Aug 6 at 14:40





$dy = -fracdx(1+x)^2$, so, the $fracdx(1+x)^2$ part in the integral can be substituted by $-dy$. I think I just forgot the minus sign, but otherwise, we agree. The problem still presents though.
– BlackMath
Aug 6 at 14:40













$x neq frac 1y$. Rather, $x = frac 1y - 1$, given your substitution $y= frac 11+x$.
– amWhy
Aug 6 at 14:47





$x neq frac 1y$. Rather, $x = frac 1y - 1$, given your substitution $y= frac 11+x$.
– amWhy
Aug 6 at 14:47













Right, sorry, I forgot a term outside the integral. The final result is correct though. I will edit the original post.
– BlackMath
Aug 6 at 16:04




Right, sorry, I forgot a term outside the integral. The final result is correct though. I will edit the original post.
– BlackMath
Aug 6 at 16:04










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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up vote
3
down vote













You evaluate the integral
as if the function was
$e^jty$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:35






  • 1




    How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:23










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
3
down vote













You evaluate the integral
as if the function was
$e^jty$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:35






  • 1




    How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:23














up vote
3
down vote













You evaluate the integral
as if the function was
$e^jty$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:35






  • 1




    How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:23












up vote
3
down vote










up vote
3
down vote









You evaluate the integral
as if the function was
$e^jty$.






share|cite|improve this answer















You evaluate the integral
as if the function was
$e^jty$.







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 10 at 17:01









amWhy

189k25219431




189k25219431











answered Aug 6 at 14:32









marty cohen

69.3k446122




69.3k446122











  • Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:35






  • 1




    How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:23
















  • Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
    – amWhy
    Aug 6 at 14:35






  • 1




    How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
    – BlackMath
    Aug 6 at 16:23















Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
– amWhy
Aug 6 at 14:35




Not exactly. the OP thinks they are integrating $e^jt/y$
– amWhy
Aug 6 at 14:35




1




1




How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
– BlackMath
Aug 6 at 16:23




How I evaluated the integral as it was $e^jty$? Could you explain?
– BlackMath
Aug 6 at 16:23












 

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