Why is this function well defined and $C^infty$?
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $MsubseteqmathbbR^k$ be an embedded submanifold of $mathbbR^k$, with dim$M=n$.
Let $(U,phi)$ be a smooth chart for $M$.
Then $phi^-1:phi(U)to U$ is a diffeomorphism and for each $xin phi(U)$ the map $d(phi^-1)_x:T_xphi(U)to T_pU$ is isomorphism of $mathbbR$-vector spaces, with $p=phi^-1(x)$.
My book defines $$G:phi(U) timesmathbbS^n-1 to mathbbS^k-1, quad (x,u)mapsto fracd(phi^-1)_x(u)lVert d(phi^-1)_x(u) rVert$$
and says that this function is $C^infty$.
I am not even able to see why this function is well defined.
For example, if $ uin mathbbS^n-1$, what is the meaning of $d(phi^-1)_x(u)?$
I know that $d(phi^-1)_x$ acts on elements of $T_xphi(U)$, form where it comes out $mathbbS^n-1$?
Please explain me with full (formal) details what it's going on here: what is the sense and the meaning of this functions and how can I prove that it is $C^infty$. Thank you in advance.
smooth-manifolds
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $MsubseteqmathbbR^k$ be an embedded submanifold of $mathbbR^k$, with dim$M=n$.
Let $(U,phi)$ be a smooth chart for $M$.
Then $phi^-1:phi(U)to U$ is a diffeomorphism and for each $xin phi(U)$ the map $d(phi^-1)_x:T_xphi(U)to T_pU$ is isomorphism of $mathbbR$-vector spaces, with $p=phi^-1(x)$.
My book defines $$G:phi(U) timesmathbbS^n-1 to mathbbS^k-1, quad (x,u)mapsto fracd(phi^-1)_x(u)lVert d(phi^-1)_x(u) rVert$$
and says that this function is $C^infty$.
I am not even able to see why this function is well defined.
For example, if $ uin mathbbS^n-1$, what is the meaning of $d(phi^-1)_x(u)?$
I know that $d(phi^-1)_x$ acts on elements of $T_xphi(U)$, form where it comes out $mathbbS^n-1$?
Please explain me with full (formal) details what it's going on here: what is the sense and the meaning of this functions and how can I prove that it is $C^infty$. Thank you in advance.
smooth-manifolds
My guess: the tangent space is identifiable as $mathbbR^n$, so $u$ is just a unit vector in the tangent space.
– Randall
Aug 6 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $MsubseteqmathbbR^k$ be an embedded submanifold of $mathbbR^k$, with dim$M=n$.
Let $(U,phi)$ be a smooth chart for $M$.
Then $phi^-1:phi(U)to U$ is a diffeomorphism and for each $xin phi(U)$ the map $d(phi^-1)_x:T_xphi(U)to T_pU$ is isomorphism of $mathbbR$-vector spaces, with $p=phi^-1(x)$.
My book defines $$G:phi(U) timesmathbbS^n-1 to mathbbS^k-1, quad (x,u)mapsto fracd(phi^-1)_x(u)lVert d(phi^-1)_x(u) rVert$$
and says that this function is $C^infty$.
I am not even able to see why this function is well defined.
For example, if $ uin mathbbS^n-1$, what is the meaning of $d(phi^-1)_x(u)?$
I know that $d(phi^-1)_x$ acts on elements of $T_xphi(U)$, form where it comes out $mathbbS^n-1$?
Please explain me with full (formal) details what it's going on here: what is the sense and the meaning of this functions and how can I prove that it is $C^infty$. Thank you in advance.
smooth-manifolds
Let $MsubseteqmathbbR^k$ be an embedded submanifold of $mathbbR^k$, with dim$M=n$.
Let $(U,phi)$ be a smooth chart for $M$.
Then $phi^-1:phi(U)to U$ is a diffeomorphism and for each $xin phi(U)$ the map $d(phi^-1)_x:T_xphi(U)to T_pU$ is isomorphism of $mathbbR$-vector spaces, with $p=phi^-1(x)$.
My book defines $$G:phi(U) timesmathbbS^n-1 to mathbbS^k-1, quad (x,u)mapsto fracd(phi^-1)_x(u)lVert d(phi^-1)_x(u) rVert$$
and says that this function is $C^infty$.
I am not even able to see why this function is well defined.
For example, if $ uin mathbbS^n-1$, what is the meaning of $d(phi^-1)_x(u)?$
I know that $d(phi^-1)_x$ acts on elements of $T_xphi(U)$, form where it comes out $mathbbS^n-1$?
Please explain me with full (formal) details what it's going on here: what is the sense and the meaning of this functions and how can I prove that it is $C^infty$. Thank you in advance.
smooth-manifolds
edited Aug 7 at 17:01
asked Aug 6 at 15:26
Minato
184111
184111
My guess: the tangent space is identifiable as $mathbbR^n$, so $u$ is just a unit vector in the tangent space.
– Randall
Aug 6 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
My guess: the tangent space is identifiable as $mathbbR^n$, so $u$ is just a unit vector in the tangent space.
– Randall
Aug 6 at 15:56
My guess: the tangent space is identifiable as $mathbbR^n$, so $u$ is just a unit vector in the tangent space.
– Randall
Aug 6 at 15:56
My guess: the tangent space is identifiable as $mathbbR^n$, so $u$ is just a unit vector in the tangent space.
– Randall
Aug 6 at 15:56
add a comment |Â
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2873996%2fwhy-is-this-function-well-defined-and-c-infty%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
My guess: the tangent space is identifiable as $mathbbR^n$, so $u$ is just a unit vector in the tangent space.
– Randall
Aug 6 at 15:56