A Question of integration based on partial fraction but my question is why does it work?

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Integrate
$$
frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)
$$
Now in this problem we divide it into
$$
fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6+1
$$
My question is: even if we do not consider $+1$ the values of A B and C comes the same so what does that mean? Why does this happen?







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    up vote
    -2
    down vote

    favorite












    Integrate
    $$
    frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)
    $$
    Now in this problem we divide it into
    $$
    fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6+1
    $$
    My question is: even if we do not consider $+1$ the values of A B and C comes the same so what does that mean? Why does this happen?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      -2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      -2
      down vote

      favorite











      Integrate
      $$
      frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)
      $$
      Now in this problem we divide it into
      $$
      fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6+1
      $$
      My question is: even if we do not consider $+1$ the values of A B and C comes the same so what does that mean? Why does this happen?







      share|cite|improve this question













      Integrate
      $$
      frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)
      $$
      Now in this problem we divide it into
      $$
      fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6+1
      $$
      My question is: even if we do not consider $+1$ the values of A B and C comes the same so what does that mean? Why does this happen?









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 15 at 6:52









      enzotib

      5,72321430




      5,72321430









      asked Jul 15 at 6:30









      bhaveshgoel07

      1




      1




















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          1
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          If you have
          $$fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6tag*$$
          it will simplify to something of the form
          $$fracRx^2+Sx+T(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)$$
          with a quadratic in the numerator. But your
          integrand has a cubic in the numerator, so cannot be written
          in the form (*).






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
            – Eval
            Jul 15 at 6:46

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          $$frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)=A/(x-4)+B/(x-5)+C/(x-6)+1$$



          is the correct form. Note that the degree of both top and bottom is the same so we first divide to get a $1$ as the quotient.



          If you do not include a $+1$ on the RHS then as $x$ approached infinity, the right side approaches $0$ while the left side approaches $1$



          Note that with the wrong form you may still find A, B, C but the answer is wrong.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            up vote
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            If you have
            $$fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6tag*$$
            it will simplify to something of the form
            $$fracRx^2+Sx+T(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)$$
            with a quadratic in the numerator. But your
            integrand has a cubic in the numerator, so cannot be written
            in the form (*).






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
              – Eval
              Jul 15 at 6:46














            up vote
            1
            down vote













            If you have
            $$fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6tag*$$
            it will simplify to something of the form
            $$fracRx^2+Sx+T(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)$$
            with a quadratic in the numerator. But your
            integrand has a cubic in the numerator, so cannot be written
            in the form (*).






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
              – Eval
              Jul 15 at 6:46












            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            If you have
            $$fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6tag*$$
            it will simplify to something of the form
            $$fracRx^2+Sx+T(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)$$
            with a quadratic in the numerator. But your
            integrand has a cubic in the numerator, so cannot be written
            in the form (*).






            share|cite|improve this answer













            If you have
            $$fracAx-4+fracBx-5+fracCx-6tag*$$
            it will simplify to something of the form
            $$fracRx^2+Sx+T(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)$$
            with a quadratic in the numerator. But your
            integrand has a cubic in the numerator, so cannot be written
            in the form (*).







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Jul 15 at 6:34









            Lord Shark the Unknown

            85.8k951112




            85.8k951112











            • +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
              – Eval
              Jul 15 at 6:46
















            • +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
              – Eval
              Jul 15 at 6:46















            +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
            – Eval
            Jul 15 at 6:46




            +1 ensures coefficient of x in the denominator matches with that of the numerator.
            – Eval
            Jul 15 at 6:46










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            $$frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)=A/(x-4)+B/(x-5)+C/(x-6)+1$$



            is the correct form. Note that the degree of both top and bottom is the same so we first divide to get a $1$ as the quotient.



            If you do not include a $+1$ on the RHS then as $x$ approached infinity, the right side approaches $0$ while the left side approaches $1$



            Note that with the wrong form you may still find A, B, C but the answer is wrong.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              $$frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)=A/(x-4)+B/(x-5)+C/(x-6)+1$$



              is the correct form. Note that the degree of both top and bottom is the same so we first divide to get a $1$ as the quotient.



              If you do not include a $+1$ on the RHS then as $x$ approached infinity, the right side approaches $0$ while the left side approaches $1$



              Note that with the wrong form you may still find A, B, C but the answer is wrong.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                $$frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)=A/(x-4)+B/(x-5)+C/(x-6)+1$$



                is the correct form. Note that the degree of both top and bottom is the same so we first divide to get a $1$ as the quotient.



                If you do not include a $+1$ on the RHS then as $x$ approached infinity, the right side approaches $0$ while the left side approaches $1$



                Note that with the wrong form you may still find A, B, C but the answer is wrong.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                $$frac(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)(x-4)(x-5)(x-6)=A/(x-4)+B/(x-5)+C/(x-6)+1$$



                is the correct form. Note that the degree of both top and bottom is the same so we first divide to get a $1$ as the quotient.



                If you do not include a $+1$ on the RHS then as $x$ approached infinity, the right side approaches $0$ while the left side approaches $1$



                Note that with the wrong form you may still find A, B, C but the answer is wrong.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 15 at 6:45









                Mohammad Riazi-Kermani

                27.6k41852




                27.6k41852






















                     

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