if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$

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I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.



To show this, it suffices to show that the set
$$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?







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    up vote
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    I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.



    To show this, it suffices to show that the set
    $$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?







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      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.



      To show this, it suffices to show that the set
      $$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?







      share|cite|improve this question











      I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.



      To show this, it suffices to show that the set
      $$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?









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      asked Jul 15 at 5:59









      takecare

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          4 Answers
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          accepted










          If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.



          Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$



          (Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)



          So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$






          share|cite|improve this answer






























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            The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.






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            • Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
              – dEmigOd
              Jul 15 at 6:32










            • Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
              – copper.hat
              Jul 15 at 18:28


















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.






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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes








                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                3
                down vote



                accepted










                If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.



                Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$



                (Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)



                So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$






                share|cite|improve this answer



























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.



                  Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$



                  (Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)



                  So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote



                    accepted







                    up vote
                    3
                    down vote



                    accepted






                    If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.



                    Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$



                    (Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)



                    So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer















                    If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.



                    Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$



                    (Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)



                    So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$







                    share|cite|improve this answer















                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Jul 15 at 6:15


























                    answered Jul 15 at 6:09









                    drhab

                    86.7k541118




                    86.7k541118




















                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.






                        share|cite|improve this answer





















                        • Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
                          – dEmigOd
                          Jul 15 at 6:32










                        • Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
                          – copper.hat
                          Jul 15 at 18:28















                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.






                        share|cite|improve this answer





















                        • Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
                          – dEmigOd
                          Jul 15 at 6:32










                        • Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
                          – copper.hat
                          Jul 15 at 18:28













                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote









                        The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.






                        share|cite|improve this answer













                        The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.







                        share|cite|improve this answer













                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        answered Jul 15 at 6:19









                        copper.hat

                        122k557156




                        122k557156











                        • Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
                          – dEmigOd
                          Jul 15 at 6:32










                        • Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
                          – copper.hat
                          Jul 15 at 18:28

















                        • Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
                          – dEmigOd
                          Jul 15 at 6:32










                        • Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
                          – copper.hat
                          Jul 15 at 18:28
















                        Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
                        – dEmigOd
                        Jul 15 at 6:32




                        Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
                        – dEmigOd
                        Jul 15 at 6:32












                        Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
                        – copper.hat
                        Jul 15 at 18:28





                        Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
                        – copper.hat
                        Jul 15 at 18:28











                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote













                          This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            2
                            down vote









                            This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).






                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).







                            share|cite|improve this answer













                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            answered Jul 15 at 6:01









                            Eric Wofsey

                            163k12189300




                            163k12189300




















                                up vote
                                1
                                down vote













                                Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  1
                                  down vote













                                  Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer























                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    1
                                    down vote









                                    Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer













                                    Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer













                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    answered Jul 15 at 16:09









                                    Christian Blatter

                                    164k7108306




                                    164k7108306






















                                         

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