if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$
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I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.
To show this, it suffices to show that the set
$$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory
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up vote
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I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.
To show this, it suffices to show that the set
$$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.
To show this, it suffices to show that the set
$$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory
I am trying to show that if $B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$ then $x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) ; forall x in mathbbR^n$.
To show this, it suffices to show that the set
$$mathscrA_x := Bin mathscrB(mathbbR^n): x + B in mathscrB(mathbbR^n) subset mathscrB(mathbbR^n).$$ I need to show first that $mathscrA_x$ is a $sigma-$algebra. How can I show that if $B in mathscrA_x$ then $B^c in mathscrA_x$, i.e. $x+A^c in mathscrB(mathbbR^n)$?
real-analysis analysis measure-theory
asked Jul 15 at 5:59
takecare
2,25811431
2,25811431
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4 Answers
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If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.
Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$
(Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)
So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$
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The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
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This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).
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Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.
Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$
(Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)
So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.
Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$
(Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)
So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.
Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$
(Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)
So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$
If $Binmathscr A_x$ then $B=x+A$ for some $Ainmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$.
Then: $$-x+B^complement=(-x+B)^complement=A^complementinmathscr B(mathbb R^n)$$
(Prove the first equality by showing that both statements $yin-x+B^complement$ and $yin(-x+B)^complement$ are equivalent with the statement $y+xnotin B$)
So that: $$B^complement=x+(-x+B^complement)inmathscr A_x$$
edited Jul 15 at 6:15
answered Jul 15 at 6:09
drhab
86.7k541118
86.7k541118
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up vote
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The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.
The mapping $T_x(y) = x+y$ is a homeomorphism, hence $x+B =T_-x^-1(B)$ is Borel.
answered Jul 15 at 6:19
copper.hat
122k557156
122k557156
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
add a comment |Â
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Where does it come from? Is every Borel set some countable union of open sets?
â dEmigOd
Jul 15 at 6:32
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
Well, $ T_-x^-1(B) $ is a $sigma$-field that contains the open sets, hence the Borel sets. (And no, the set $0$ is Borel but not the union of open sets.)
â copper.hat
Jul 15 at 18:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).
This is immediate from the fact that $x+B^c=(x+B)^c$ (if that equation is not obvious to you, try and prove it!).
answered Jul 15 at 6:01
Eric Wofsey
163k12189300
163k12189300
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.
Let $mathscrT:=mathscrT(mathbb R^n)$ be the topology on $mathbb R^n$. It is obvious that $mathscrT$ is translation invariant, i.e. $Omegain mathscrT$ implies $Omega+ xinmathscrT$ for all $xinmathbb R^n$. Since $mathscrB:=mathscrB(mathbb R^n)$ is constructed from $mathscrT$ in a pure set theoretical way it immediately follows that $mathscrB$ is translation invariant as well. You don't have to go through the motions.
answered Jul 15 at 16:09
Christian Blatter
164k7108306
164k7108306
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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