What are the basic ideas behind the standard proof of the Lindenbaum's Lemma?

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I have a question about Lindenbaum's Lemma for Propostitional Logic:




Any consistent set $Gamma$ of formulas is a subset of a maximal consistent set $Gamma^prime$ of formulas.




The outline of the proof (by Hunter's book) is the following:



  1. By enumeration theorem, a machine can map the whole set of propositional formulas onto the set of natural numbers; let $phi_n$ the $n^th$ formula in this sense.



  2. Let recursively define the function $Gamma_n$ as



    • $Gamma_0=Gamma$,

    • $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_ncup phi_n+1$ if $Gamma_nnotvdashnegphi_n+1$ and $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_n$ otherwise.


  3. Let $Gamma'$ be the union of $Gamma_0, Gamma_1, ..., Gamma_n, ...$


  4. etc.

Ok! I understood it. But here is my trouble:




  1. It would be better if we could directly define $Gamma^prime$ like any set s.t. for any formula $phi$:



    • if neither $phi$ nor in $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$;

    • if $phi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

    • if $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $negphi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

    In fact with this definition the claim of the lemma is automatically verified! But, I know, something is wrong. However, in order to "accept" this proof, I need to find motivations to why one cannot shorten/simplify it.



  2. Are steps 1-3 necessary because we cannot ensure otherwise the existence of the set $Gamma^'$?

  3. If yes, are we using replacement axiom scheme in step 2 and union axiom in step 3?

  4. If yes, what is the particular instance of the replacement axiom scheme that we are using? Namely, which is the actual, exact first-order formula we are considering?

Remark. I know that this is a metatheorem, and therefore its metaproof does not strictly depend by any formal theory (like ZFC is), however it is the current best justification for steps 1-3 that I found.
But I'm absolutely not conviced by this, I really need your help to understand.



Thank you!







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    up vote
    4
    down vote

    favorite
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    I have a question about Lindenbaum's Lemma for Propostitional Logic:




    Any consistent set $Gamma$ of formulas is a subset of a maximal consistent set $Gamma^prime$ of formulas.




    The outline of the proof (by Hunter's book) is the following:



    1. By enumeration theorem, a machine can map the whole set of propositional formulas onto the set of natural numbers; let $phi_n$ the $n^th$ formula in this sense.



    2. Let recursively define the function $Gamma_n$ as



      • $Gamma_0=Gamma$,

      • $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_ncup phi_n+1$ if $Gamma_nnotvdashnegphi_n+1$ and $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_n$ otherwise.


    3. Let $Gamma'$ be the union of $Gamma_0, Gamma_1, ..., Gamma_n, ...$


    4. etc.

    Ok! I understood it. But here is my trouble:




    1. It would be better if we could directly define $Gamma^prime$ like any set s.t. for any formula $phi$:



      • if neither $phi$ nor in $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$;

      • if $phi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

      • if $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $negphi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

      In fact with this definition the claim of the lemma is automatically verified! But, I know, something is wrong. However, in order to "accept" this proof, I need to find motivations to why one cannot shorten/simplify it.



    2. Are steps 1-3 necessary because we cannot ensure otherwise the existence of the set $Gamma^'$?

    3. If yes, are we using replacement axiom scheme in step 2 and union axiom in step 3?

    4. If yes, what is the particular instance of the replacement axiom scheme that we are using? Namely, which is the actual, exact first-order formula we are considering?

    Remark. I know that this is a metatheorem, and therefore its metaproof does not strictly depend by any formal theory (like ZFC is), however it is the current best justification for steps 1-3 that I found.
    But I'm absolutely not conviced by this, I really need your help to understand.



    Thank you!







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      I have a question about Lindenbaum's Lemma for Propostitional Logic:




      Any consistent set $Gamma$ of formulas is a subset of a maximal consistent set $Gamma^prime$ of formulas.




      The outline of the proof (by Hunter's book) is the following:



      1. By enumeration theorem, a machine can map the whole set of propositional formulas onto the set of natural numbers; let $phi_n$ the $n^th$ formula in this sense.



      2. Let recursively define the function $Gamma_n$ as



        • $Gamma_0=Gamma$,

        • $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_ncup phi_n+1$ if $Gamma_nnotvdashnegphi_n+1$ and $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_n$ otherwise.


      3. Let $Gamma'$ be the union of $Gamma_0, Gamma_1, ..., Gamma_n, ...$


      4. etc.

      Ok! I understood it. But here is my trouble:




      1. It would be better if we could directly define $Gamma^prime$ like any set s.t. for any formula $phi$:



        • if neither $phi$ nor in $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$;

        • if $phi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

        • if $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $negphi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

        In fact with this definition the claim of the lemma is automatically verified! But, I know, something is wrong. However, in order to "accept" this proof, I need to find motivations to why one cannot shorten/simplify it.



      2. Are steps 1-3 necessary because we cannot ensure otherwise the existence of the set $Gamma^'$?

      3. If yes, are we using replacement axiom scheme in step 2 and union axiom in step 3?

      4. If yes, what is the particular instance of the replacement axiom scheme that we are using? Namely, which is the actual, exact first-order formula we are considering?

      Remark. I know that this is a metatheorem, and therefore its metaproof does not strictly depend by any formal theory (like ZFC is), however it is the current best justification for steps 1-3 that I found.
      But I'm absolutely not conviced by this, I really need your help to understand.



      Thank you!







      share|cite|improve this question











      I have a question about Lindenbaum's Lemma for Propostitional Logic:




      Any consistent set $Gamma$ of formulas is a subset of a maximal consistent set $Gamma^prime$ of formulas.




      The outline of the proof (by Hunter's book) is the following:



      1. By enumeration theorem, a machine can map the whole set of propositional formulas onto the set of natural numbers; let $phi_n$ the $n^th$ formula in this sense.



      2. Let recursively define the function $Gamma_n$ as



        • $Gamma_0=Gamma$,

        • $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_ncup phi_n+1$ if $Gamma_nnotvdashnegphi_n+1$ and $Gamma_n+1=Gamma_n$ otherwise.


      3. Let $Gamma'$ be the union of $Gamma_0, Gamma_1, ..., Gamma_n, ...$


      4. etc.

      Ok! I understood it. But here is my trouble:




      1. It would be better if we could directly define $Gamma^prime$ like any set s.t. for any formula $phi$:



        • if neither $phi$ nor in $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$;

        • if $phi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $phi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

        • if $negphi$ can be deduced by $Gamma$ then $negphi$ is in $Gamma^prime$

        In fact with this definition the claim of the lemma is automatically verified! But, I know, something is wrong. However, in order to "accept" this proof, I need to find motivations to why one cannot shorten/simplify it.



      2. Are steps 1-3 necessary because we cannot ensure otherwise the existence of the set $Gamma^'$?

      3. If yes, are we using replacement axiom scheme in step 2 and union axiom in step 3?

      4. If yes, what is the particular instance of the replacement axiom scheme that we are using? Namely, which is the actual, exact first-order formula we are considering?

      Remark. I know that this is a metatheorem, and therefore its metaproof does not strictly depend by any formal theory (like ZFC is), however it is the current best justification for steps 1-3 that I found.
      But I'm absolutely not conviced by this, I really need your help to understand.



      Thank you!









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      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 14 at 23:34









      Michele Cirillo

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          Your set $Gamma'$ does not work. Consider a formula $phi$ such that neither $phi$ nor $neg phi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. Then, by your definition, $phi$ will be in $Gamma'$. But letting $psi=negphi$, it is also true that neither $psi$ nor $negpsi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. So $psi$ will also be in $Gamma'$. So both $phiinGamma'$ and $negphiinGamma'$, and $Gamma'$ is not consistent.



          More generally, even if you modify your definition to avoid this specific issue, there is no guarantee that your set $Gamma'$ will be consistent. Each individual new formula you added is consistent with $Gamma$, but they may not be consistent with each other. That is why the recursive procedure of steps 1-3 is important, to guarantee that the set $Gamma'$ is actually consistent. It has nothing to do with being able to formally construct the set.



          In detail, here is how you prove the set $Gamma'$ given by steps 1-3 is consistent. If it were inconsistent, some finite subset $FsubseteqGamma'$ would be inconsistent. Then for some $n$, $Fsubseteq Gamma_n$. But we can prove by induction on $n$ that $Gamma_n$ is consistent for all $n$ (since if $Snotvdash negphi$ then $Scupphi$ is consistent). This is a contradiction, and thus $Gamma'$ is consistent.






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            up vote
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            accepted










            Your set $Gamma'$ does not work. Consider a formula $phi$ such that neither $phi$ nor $neg phi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. Then, by your definition, $phi$ will be in $Gamma'$. But letting $psi=negphi$, it is also true that neither $psi$ nor $negpsi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. So $psi$ will also be in $Gamma'$. So both $phiinGamma'$ and $negphiinGamma'$, and $Gamma'$ is not consistent.



            More generally, even if you modify your definition to avoid this specific issue, there is no guarantee that your set $Gamma'$ will be consistent. Each individual new formula you added is consistent with $Gamma$, but they may not be consistent with each other. That is why the recursive procedure of steps 1-3 is important, to guarantee that the set $Gamma'$ is actually consistent. It has nothing to do with being able to formally construct the set.



            In detail, here is how you prove the set $Gamma'$ given by steps 1-3 is consistent. If it were inconsistent, some finite subset $FsubseteqGamma'$ would be inconsistent. Then for some $n$, $Fsubseteq Gamma_n$. But we can prove by induction on $n$ that $Gamma_n$ is consistent for all $n$ (since if $Snotvdash negphi$ then $Scupphi$ is consistent). This is a contradiction, and thus $Gamma'$ is consistent.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              8
              down vote



              accepted










              Your set $Gamma'$ does not work. Consider a formula $phi$ such that neither $phi$ nor $neg phi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. Then, by your definition, $phi$ will be in $Gamma'$. But letting $psi=negphi$, it is also true that neither $psi$ nor $negpsi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. So $psi$ will also be in $Gamma'$. So both $phiinGamma'$ and $negphiinGamma'$, and $Gamma'$ is not consistent.



              More generally, even if you modify your definition to avoid this specific issue, there is no guarantee that your set $Gamma'$ will be consistent. Each individual new formula you added is consistent with $Gamma$, but they may not be consistent with each other. That is why the recursive procedure of steps 1-3 is important, to guarantee that the set $Gamma'$ is actually consistent. It has nothing to do with being able to formally construct the set.



              In detail, here is how you prove the set $Gamma'$ given by steps 1-3 is consistent. If it were inconsistent, some finite subset $FsubseteqGamma'$ would be inconsistent. Then for some $n$, $Fsubseteq Gamma_n$. But we can prove by induction on $n$ that $Gamma_n$ is consistent for all $n$ (since if $Snotvdash negphi$ then $Scupphi$ is consistent). This is a contradiction, and thus $Gamma'$ is consistent.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                8
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                8
                down vote



                accepted






                Your set $Gamma'$ does not work. Consider a formula $phi$ such that neither $phi$ nor $neg phi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. Then, by your definition, $phi$ will be in $Gamma'$. But letting $psi=negphi$, it is also true that neither $psi$ nor $negpsi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. So $psi$ will also be in $Gamma'$. So both $phiinGamma'$ and $negphiinGamma'$, and $Gamma'$ is not consistent.



                More generally, even if you modify your definition to avoid this specific issue, there is no guarantee that your set $Gamma'$ will be consistent. Each individual new formula you added is consistent with $Gamma$, but they may not be consistent with each other. That is why the recursive procedure of steps 1-3 is important, to guarantee that the set $Gamma'$ is actually consistent. It has nothing to do with being able to formally construct the set.



                In detail, here is how you prove the set $Gamma'$ given by steps 1-3 is consistent. If it were inconsistent, some finite subset $FsubseteqGamma'$ would be inconsistent. Then for some $n$, $Fsubseteq Gamma_n$. But we can prove by induction on $n$ that $Gamma_n$ is consistent for all $n$ (since if $Snotvdash negphi$ then $Scupphi$ is consistent). This is a contradiction, and thus $Gamma'$ is consistent.






                share|cite|improve this answer















                Your set $Gamma'$ does not work. Consider a formula $phi$ such that neither $phi$ nor $neg phi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. Then, by your definition, $phi$ will be in $Gamma'$. But letting $psi=negphi$, it is also true that neither $psi$ nor $negpsi$ can be deduced from $Gamma$. So $psi$ will also be in $Gamma'$. So both $phiinGamma'$ and $negphiinGamma'$, and $Gamma'$ is not consistent.



                More generally, even if you modify your definition to avoid this specific issue, there is no guarantee that your set $Gamma'$ will be consistent. Each individual new formula you added is consistent with $Gamma$, but they may not be consistent with each other. That is why the recursive procedure of steps 1-3 is important, to guarantee that the set $Gamma'$ is actually consistent. It has nothing to do with being able to formally construct the set.



                In detail, here is how you prove the set $Gamma'$ given by steps 1-3 is consistent. If it were inconsistent, some finite subset $FsubseteqGamma'$ would be inconsistent. Then for some $n$, $Fsubseteq Gamma_n$. But we can prove by induction on $n$ that $Gamma_n$ is consistent for all $n$ (since if $Snotvdash negphi$ then $Scupphi$ is consistent). This is a contradiction, and thus $Gamma'$ is consistent.







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                edited Jul 15 at 9:08









                Max

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                answered Jul 14 at 23:50









                Eric Wofsey

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