Indicator Function appearing when solving functional equation

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Let $I_A(x)=begincases 0 & x in A\1 & textelse endcases$ where $A subseteq mathbbR.$



A particularly hard functional equation boiled down to determining the sets $A$ satisfying $I_A(x)I_A(x+y)=I_A(y)I_A(x-y).$ Due to analysis of the original functional equation, we know that $I_A(0)=1,$ or $0 notin A.$



I have determined the following properties:



$I_A(x) = I_A(-x),$ or $x in A iff -x in A$



$x in A Rightarrow x/2 in A$



If $a in A,$ then $I_A(x)I_A(a-x)=I_A(x)I_A(a+x)=0.$



I've noticed that if A is non-empty, it will contain arbitrarily large and small values. Thus, I've conjectured that the only possible $A$ that satisfy the aforementioned indicational equation are $emptyset, , mathbbR setminus 0.$







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  • Your notation looks a little backwards. What you have written for as $I_A$ is a function that takes on $1$ when $x not in A$. This is fine it's just not the typical definition. Is that what you intended? Typically we might write such a function as $I_barA$ where $barA$ refers to the complement of $A$.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 22:56







  • 1




    @Mason Yes. The solution to the original functional equation is $I_A(x)gamma(x),$ where $gamma>0$ is a positive function that we already found.
    – Display name
    Jul 14 at 22:58











  • Can $A$ be the set of irrational numbers?
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:08














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $I_A(x)=begincases 0 & x in A\1 & textelse endcases$ where $A subseteq mathbbR.$



A particularly hard functional equation boiled down to determining the sets $A$ satisfying $I_A(x)I_A(x+y)=I_A(y)I_A(x-y).$ Due to analysis of the original functional equation, we know that $I_A(0)=1,$ or $0 notin A.$



I have determined the following properties:



$I_A(x) = I_A(-x),$ or $x in A iff -x in A$



$x in A Rightarrow x/2 in A$



If $a in A,$ then $I_A(x)I_A(a-x)=I_A(x)I_A(a+x)=0.$



I've noticed that if A is non-empty, it will contain arbitrarily large and small values. Thus, I've conjectured that the only possible $A$ that satisfy the aforementioned indicational equation are $emptyset, , mathbbR setminus 0.$







share|cite|improve this question



















  • Your notation looks a little backwards. What you have written for as $I_A$ is a function that takes on $1$ when $x not in A$. This is fine it's just not the typical definition. Is that what you intended? Typically we might write such a function as $I_barA$ where $barA$ refers to the complement of $A$.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 22:56







  • 1




    @Mason Yes. The solution to the original functional equation is $I_A(x)gamma(x),$ where $gamma>0$ is a positive function that we already found.
    – Display name
    Jul 14 at 22:58











  • Can $A$ be the set of irrational numbers?
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:08












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $I_A(x)=begincases 0 & x in A\1 & textelse endcases$ where $A subseteq mathbbR.$



A particularly hard functional equation boiled down to determining the sets $A$ satisfying $I_A(x)I_A(x+y)=I_A(y)I_A(x-y).$ Due to analysis of the original functional equation, we know that $I_A(0)=1,$ or $0 notin A.$



I have determined the following properties:



$I_A(x) = I_A(-x),$ or $x in A iff -x in A$



$x in A Rightarrow x/2 in A$



If $a in A,$ then $I_A(x)I_A(a-x)=I_A(x)I_A(a+x)=0.$



I've noticed that if A is non-empty, it will contain arbitrarily large and small values. Thus, I've conjectured that the only possible $A$ that satisfy the aforementioned indicational equation are $emptyset, , mathbbR setminus 0.$







share|cite|improve this question











Let $I_A(x)=begincases 0 & x in A\1 & textelse endcases$ where $A subseteq mathbbR.$



A particularly hard functional equation boiled down to determining the sets $A$ satisfying $I_A(x)I_A(x+y)=I_A(y)I_A(x-y).$ Due to analysis of the original functional equation, we know that $I_A(0)=1,$ or $0 notin A.$



I have determined the following properties:



$I_A(x) = I_A(-x),$ or $x in A iff -x in A$



$x in A Rightarrow x/2 in A$



If $a in A,$ then $I_A(x)I_A(a-x)=I_A(x)I_A(a+x)=0.$



I've noticed that if A is non-empty, it will contain arbitrarily large and small values. Thus, I've conjectured that the only possible $A$ that satisfy the aforementioned indicational equation are $emptyset, , mathbbR setminus 0.$









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asked Jul 14 at 22:44









Display name

623211




623211











  • Your notation looks a little backwards. What you have written for as $I_A$ is a function that takes on $1$ when $x not in A$. This is fine it's just not the typical definition. Is that what you intended? Typically we might write such a function as $I_barA$ where $barA$ refers to the complement of $A$.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 22:56







  • 1




    @Mason Yes. The solution to the original functional equation is $I_A(x)gamma(x),$ where $gamma>0$ is a positive function that we already found.
    – Display name
    Jul 14 at 22:58











  • Can $A$ be the set of irrational numbers?
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:08
















  • Your notation looks a little backwards. What you have written for as $I_A$ is a function that takes on $1$ when $x not in A$. This is fine it's just not the typical definition. Is that what you intended? Typically we might write such a function as $I_barA$ where $barA$ refers to the complement of $A$.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 22:56







  • 1




    @Mason Yes. The solution to the original functional equation is $I_A(x)gamma(x),$ where $gamma>0$ is a positive function that we already found.
    – Display name
    Jul 14 at 22:58











  • Can $A$ be the set of irrational numbers?
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:08















Your notation looks a little backwards. What you have written for as $I_A$ is a function that takes on $1$ when $x not in A$. This is fine it's just not the typical definition. Is that what you intended? Typically we might write such a function as $I_barA$ where $barA$ refers to the complement of $A$.
– Mason
Jul 14 at 22:56





Your notation looks a little backwards. What you have written for as $I_A$ is a function that takes on $1$ when $x not in A$. This is fine it's just not the typical definition. Is that what you intended? Typically we might write such a function as $I_barA$ where $barA$ refers to the complement of $A$.
– Mason
Jul 14 at 22:56





1




1




@Mason Yes. The solution to the original functional equation is $I_A(x)gamma(x),$ where $gamma>0$ is a positive function that we already found.
– Display name
Jul 14 at 22:58





@Mason Yes. The solution to the original functional equation is $I_A(x)gamma(x),$ where $gamma>0$ is a positive function that we already found.
– Display name
Jul 14 at 22:58













Can $A$ be the set of irrational numbers?
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:08




Can $A$ be the set of irrational numbers?
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:08










1 Answer
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up vote
2
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The set of all rationals numbers and the set of all dyadic rationals numbers both satisfy the given equation. There are many solutions.






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  • I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:22










  • No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:27










  • The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:28










  • Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 14 at 23:30










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote













The set of all rationals numbers and the set of all dyadic rationals numbers both satisfy the given equation. There are many solutions.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:22










  • No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:27










  • The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:28










  • Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 14 at 23:30














up vote
2
down vote













The set of all rationals numbers and the set of all dyadic rationals numbers both satisfy the given equation. There are many solutions.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:22










  • No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:27










  • The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:28










  • Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 14 at 23:30












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









The set of all rationals numbers and the set of all dyadic rationals numbers both satisfy the given equation. There are many solutions.






share|cite|improve this answer













The set of all rationals numbers and the set of all dyadic rationals numbers both satisfy the given equation. There are many solutions.







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Jul 14 at 23:21









Kavi Rama Murthy

21k2830




21k2830











  • I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:22










  • No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:27










  • The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:28










  • Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 14 at 23:30
















  • I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:22










  • No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:27










  • The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
    – Mason
    Jul 14 at 23:28










  • Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 14 at 23:30















I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:22




I was just fixing to answer this with the link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dyadic_rational
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:22












No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:27




No I think you are reading the "indicator function" backwards tho... $I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi+pi)=1times 1 neq I_mathbbQ(pi)I_mathbbQ(pi-pi)=1times 0 $
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:27












The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:28




The complements of these sets do the trick. This confusion is the result of the OP defining the indicator function in precisely the opposite of the conventional notation.
– Mason
Jul 14 at 23:28












Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jul 14 at 23:30




Very strange definition of indicator function by the OP. Thanks to Mason. My answer can be corrected by taking complements. I would not correct my answer because the OP has confused us by not sticking to standard convention.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jul 14 at 23:30












 

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