Do there exist distinct integers $p$ and $q$ such that $dfracpn = dfracqn+1$ for some integer $n$? [closed]

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Do there exist distinct integers $p$ and $q$ such that $dfracpn = dfracqn+1$ for some integer $n$, given $p$ is less than $n$ and likewise $q$ is less than $n+1$?



Assume that $dfracpn$ and $dfracqn+1$ can be rational, non-integers.



edit: changed less than inequality constraint to strictly less than.







share|cite|improve this question













closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel Jul 15 at 3:55


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • p and q must be distinct.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:55







  • 2




    The question isn't clear. Why not take $p=n,q=n+1$?
    – lulu
    Jul 14 at 23:56






  • 1




    P=n and q=n+1 works
    – mm8511
    Jul 14 at 23:57










  • Mmm, I'll update it and remove the equality constraint.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:58










  • Since $gcd(n,n+1)=1$ it is clear that $n$ divides $p$ and $n-1$ divides $q$ (assuming that $p,q>0$).
    – lulu
    Jul 15 at 0:01















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Do there exist distinct integers $p$ and $q$ such that $dfracpn = dfracqn+1$ for some integer $n$, given $p$ is less than $n$ and likewise $q$ is less than $n+1$?



Assume that $dfracpn$ and $dfracqn+1$ can be rational, non-integers.



edit: changed less than inequality constraint to strictly less than.







share|cite|improve this question













closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel Jul 15 at 3:55


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • p and q must be distinct.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:55







  • 2




    The question isn't clear. Why not take $p=n,q=n+1$?
    – lulu
    Jul 14 at 23:56






  • 1




    P=n and q=n+1 works
    – mm8511
    Jul 14 at 23:57










  • Mmm, I'll update it and remove the equality constraint.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:58










  • Since $gcd(n,n+1)=1$ it is clear that $n$ divides $p$ and $n-1$ divides $q$ (assuming that $p,q>0$).
    – lulu
    Jul 15 at 0:01













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Do there exist distinct integers $p$ and $q$ such that $dfracpn = dfracqn+1$ for some integer $n$, given $p$ is less than $n$ and likewise $q$ is less than $n+1$?



Assume that $dfracpn$ and $dfracqn+1$ can be rational, non-integers.



edit: changed less than inequality constraint to strictly less than.







share|cite|improve this question













Do there exist distinct integers $p$ and $q$ such that $dfracpn = dfracqn+1$ for some integer $n$, given $p$ is less than $n$ and likewise $q$ is less than $n+1$?



Assume that $dfracpn$ and $dfracqn+1$ can be rational, non-integers.



edit: changed less than inequality constraint to strictly less than.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 15 at 0:12
























asked Jul 14 at 23:53









user115660

63




63




closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel Jul 15 at 3:55


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel Jul 15 at 3:55


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, amWhy, Shailesh, Alex Francisco, Parcly Taxel
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • p and q must be distinct.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:55







  • 2




    The question isn't clear. Why not take $p=n,q=n+1$?
    – lulu
    Jul 14 at 23:56






  • 1




    P=n and q=n+1 works
    – mm8511
    Jul 14 at 23:57










  • Mmm, I'll update it and remove the equality constraint.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:58










  • Since $gcd(n,n+1)=1$ it is clear that $n$ divides $p$ and $n-1$ divides $q$ (assuming that $p,q>0$).
    – lulu
    Jul 15 at 0:01

















  • p and q must be distinct.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:55







  • 2




    The question isn't clear. Why not take $p=n,q=n+1$?
    – lulu
    Jul 14 at 23:56






  • 1




    P=n and q=n+1 works
    – mm8511
    Jul 14 at 23:57










  • Mmm, I'll update it and remove the equality constraint.
    – user115660
    Jul 14 at 23:58










  • Since $gcd(n,n+1)=1$ it is clear that $n$ divides $p$ and $n-1$ divides $q$ (assuming that $p,q>0$).
    – lulu
    Jul 15 at 0:01
















p and q must be distinct.
– user115660
Jul 14 at 23:55





p and q must be distinct.
– user115660
Jul 14 at 23:55





2




2




The question isn't clear. Why not take $p=n,q=n+1$?
– lulu
Jul 14 at 23:56




The question isn't clear. Why not take $p=n,q=n+1$?
– lulu
Jul 14 at 23:56




1




1




P=n and q=n+1 works
– mm8511
Jul 14 at 23:57




P=n and q=n+1 works
– mm8511
Jul 14 at 23:57












Mmm, I'll update it and remove the equality constraint.
– user115660
Jul 14 at 23:58




Mmm, I'll update it and remove the equality constraint.
– user115660
Jul 14 at 23:58












Since $gcd(n,n+1)=1$ it is clear that $n$ divides $p$ and $n-1$ divides $q$ (assuming that $p,q>0$).
– lulu
Jul 15 at 0:01





Since $gcd(n,n+1)=1$ it is clear that $n$ divides $p$ and $n-1$ divides $q$ (assuming that $p,q>0$).
– lulu
Jul 15 at 0:01











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Your equation can be rewritten as $frac nn+1=frac pq$, therefore the answer is yes, since $n$ and $n+1$ are necessarily coprime, the fraction $frac nn+1$ is reduced (and the unique integers are the obvious $p=n$, $q=n+1$).




Edit: A direct consequence of the above is that the answer to the new question is no. Since the only (unique!) solution is to have $p$ and $q$ respectively equal to $n$ and $n+1$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:02










  • @user115660 Edited.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:06










  • Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:10










  • @user115660 You're welcome.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:10

















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Your equation can be rewritten as $frac nn+1=frac pq$, therefore the answer is yes, since $n$ and $n+1$ are necessarily coprime, the fraction $frac nn+1$ is reduced (and the unique integers are the obvious $p=n$, $q=n+1$).




Edit: A direct consequence of the above is that the answer to the new question is no. Since the only (unique!) solution is to have $p$ and $q$ respectively equal to $n$ and $n+1$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:02










  • @user115660 Edited.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:06










  • Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:10










  • @user115660 You're welcome.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:10














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Your equation can be rewritten as $frac nn+1=frac pq$, therefore the answer is yes, since $n$ and $n+1$ are necessarily coprime, the fraction $frac nn+1$ is reduced (and the unique integers are the obvious $p=n$, $q=n+1$).




Edit: A direct consequence of the above is that the answer to the new question is no. Since the only (unique!) solution is to have $p$ and $q$ respectively equal to $n$ and $n+1$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:02










  • @user115660 Edited.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:06










  • Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:10










  • @user115660 You're welcome.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:10












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Your equation can be rewritten as $frac nn+1=frac pq$, therefore the answer is yes, since $n$ and $n+1$ are necessarily coprime, the fraction $frac nn+1$ is reduced (and the unique integers are the obvious $p=n$, $q=n+1$).




Edit: A direct consequence of the above is that the answer to the new question is no. Since the only (unique!) solution is to have $p$ and $q$ respectively equal to $n$ and $n+1$.






share|cite|improve this answer















Your equation can be rewritten as $frac nn+1=frac pq$, therefore the answer is yes, since $n$ and $n+1$ are necessarily coprime, the fraction $frac nn+1$ is reduced (and the unique integers are the obvious $p=n$, $q=n+1$).




Edit: A direct consequence of the above is that the answer to the new question is no. Since the only (unique!) solution is to have $p$ and $q$ respectively equal to $n$ and $n+1$.







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 15 at 0:05


























answered Jul 14 at 23:56









Arnaud Mortier

19.2k22159




19.2k22159











  • This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:02










  • @user115660 Edited.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:06










  • Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:10










  • @user115660 You're welcome.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:10
















  • This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:02










  • @user115660 Edited.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:06










  • Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
    – user115660
    Jul 15 at 0:10










  • @user115660 You're welcome.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 15 at 0:10















This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
– user115660
Jul 15 at 0:02




This is correct! I've updated my question so that the integers must be distinct, not necessarily unique, and constraint is now strictly less than.
– user115660
Jul 15 at 0:02












@user115660 Edited.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 15 at 0:06




@user115660 Edited.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 15 at 0:06












Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
– user115660
Jul 15 at 0:10




Ah ha, interesting. By asking the wrong question, the provided answer could be used to infer the solution to the intended question. Thank you @Arnaud Mortier.
– user115660
Jul 15 at 0:10












@user115660 You're welcome.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 15 at 0:10




@user115660 You're welcome.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 15 at 0:10


Comments

Popular posts from this blog

What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?