Are there infinitely many prime numbers of the form $p^2+4$ with $p$ prime? [closed]
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Let $p$ be a prime. Are there infinitely many prime numbers which are of the form $p$$^2$$+$$4$?
number-theory
closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson Jul 15 at 18:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson
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Let $p$ be a prime. Are there infinitely many prime numbers which are of the form $p$$^2$$+$$4$?
number-theory
closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson Jul 15 at 18:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson
1
Where is your attempt?
â tien lee
Jul 15 at 3:30
Welcome to MSE! Your question will likely be better received if you show what you have tried to resolve the problem, and/or the context of the problem.
â Sambo
Jul 15 at 3:33
I just put that, thank you.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 3:48
$p^2+4 equiv -1(mod 6)$ only implies that if there are infintely or finitely many primes of the form $p^2+4$, then all of them will leave a remainder $5$ when divided by $6$.
â Abhishek Bakshi
Jul 15 at 4:31
1
Alright, I deleted it.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 5:03
 |Â
show 7 more comments
up vote
0
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $p$ be a prime. Are there infinitely many prime numbers which are of the form $p$$^2$$+$$4$?
number-theory
Let $p$ be a prime. Are there infinitely many prime numbers which are of the form $p$$^2$$+$$4$?
number-theory
edited Jul 15 at 5:02
asked Jul 15 at 3:28
Pacifica
458
458
closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson Jul 15 at 18:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson
closed as off-topic by Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson Jul 15 at 18:34
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Alex Francisco, Morgan Rodgers, amWhy, José Carlos Santos, Xander Henderson
1
Where is your attempt?
â tien lee
Jul 15 at 3:30
Welcome to MSE! Your question will likely be better received if you show what you have tried to resolve the problem, and/or the context of the problem.
â Sambo
Jul 15 at 3:33
I just put that, thank you.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 3:48
$p^2+4 equiv -1(mod 6)$ only implies that if there are infintely or finitely many primes of the form $p^2+4$, then all of them will leave a remainder $5$ when divided by $6$.
â Abhishek Bakshi
Jul 15 at 4:31
1
Alright, I deleted it.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 5:03
 |Â
show 7 more comments
1
Where is your attempt?
â tien lee
Jul 15 at 3:30
Welcome to MSE! Your question will likely be better received if you show what you have tried to resolve the problem, and/or the context of the problem.
â Sambo
Jul 15 at 3:33
I just put that, thank you.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 3:48
$p^2+4 equiv -1(mod 6)$ only implies that if there are infintely or finitely many primes of the form $p^2+4$, then all of them will leave a remainder $5$ when divided by $6$.
â Abhishek Bakshi
Jul 15 at 4:31
1
Alright, I deleted it.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 5:03
1
1
Where is your attempt?
â tien lee
Jul 15 at 3:30
Where is your attempt?
â tien lee
Jul 15 at 3:30
Welcome to MSE! Your question will likely be better received if you show what you have tried to resolve the problem, and/or the context of the problem.
â Sambo
Jul 15 at 3:33
Welcome to MSE! Your question will likely be better received if you show what you have tried to resolve the problem, and/or the context of the problem.
â Sambo
Jul 15 at 3:33
I just put that, thank you.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 3:48
I just put that, thank you.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 3:48
$p^2+4 equiv -1(mod 6)$ only implies that if there are infintely or finitely many primes of the form $p^2+4$, then all of them will leave a remainder $5$ when divided by $6$.
â Abhishek Bakshi
Jul 15 at 4:31
$p^2+4 equiv -1(mod 6)$ only implies that if there are infintely or finitely many primes of the form $p^2+4$, then all of them will leave a remainder $5$ when divided by $6$.
â Abhishek Bakshi
Jul 15 at 4:31
1
1
Alright, I deleted it.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 5:03
Alright, I deleted it.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 5:03
 |Â
show 7 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The easy answer: We don't know.
Check out: https://oeis.org/A045637.
It looks like this problem is open but an answer would follow from us resolving the Bunyakovsky conjecture. You can read up on that here or on wiki.
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The easy answer: We don't know.
Check out: https://oeis.org/A045637.
It looks like this problem is open but an answer would follow from us resolving the Bunyakovsky conjecture. You can read up on that here or on wiki.
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The easy answer: We don't know.
Check out: https://oeis.org/A045637.
It looks like this problem is open but an answer would follow from us resolving the Bunyakovsky conjecture. You can read up on that here or on wiki.
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
The easy answer: We don't know.
Check out: https://oeis.org/A045637.
It looks like this problem is open but an answer would follow from us resolving the Bunyakovsky conjecture. You can read up on that here or on wiki.
The easy answer: We don't know.
Check out: https://oeis.org/A045637.
It looks like this problem is open but an answer would follow from us resolving the Bunyakovsky conjecture. You can read up on that here or on wiki.
answered Jul 15 at 5:40
Mason
1,2401224
1,2401224
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
add a comment |Â
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
This is a field which has full of conjectures.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 6:59
add a comment |Â
1
Where is your attempt?
â tien lee
Jul 15 at 3:30
Welcome to MSE! Your question will likely be better received if you show what you have tried to resolve the problem, and/or the context of the problem.
â Sambo
Jul 15 at 3:33
I just put that, thank you.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 3:48
$p^2+4 equiv -1(mod 6)$ only implies that if there are infintely or finitely many primes of the form $p^2+4$, then all of them will leave a remainder $5$ when divided by $6$.
â Abhishek Bakshi
Jul 15 at 4:31
1
Alright, I deleted it.
â Pacifica
Jul 15 at 5:03