Convergence of integrals under weak convergence of measure and compact convergence

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I'm trying to solve Problem 2.4.12 on page 64 of Karatzas-Shreve's book "Brownian motion and stochastic calculus":
enter image description here



My attempt is to use triangle inequality (denoting $Omega=C[0,infty)$)
$$|int_Omega f_ndP_n-int_Omega fdP|leq |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|+|int_Omega fdP_n-int_Omega fdP|quadstar,$$
and estimate the first term with dominated convergence, the second using weak convergence of the measures.



For $epsilon>0$, since $(P_n)_n$ is tight (by Prohorov thm) I can choose a compact $Ksubset Omega$ such that $P_n(K)geq 1-epsilon$.
Fix $mgeq1$, then by dominated convergence for $n$ large enough I have
$$ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|=|int_K (f_n-f)dP_m|+|int_K^c (f_n-f)dP_m|
leq epsilon+epsilonsup_ngeq1,omegain K^c|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|.$$



  1. To conclude I need $f$ to be bounded. Does this follow from the fact that $f$ is the compact-limit of uniformly bounded functions? (Note that I need boundedness also to use weak convergence on the second term of $star$)


  2. Is it correct that if $forall mgeq1$ $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|to_ntoinfty0$, then
    $ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|to_ntoinfty0?$
    To be fair I think it's true only if the first convergence is uniform in $m$.


Thanks in advance :)







share|cite|improve this question



















  • You know that the sequence is uniformly bounded, so the same bound holds also for the pointwise limit
    – Bob
    Jul 28 at 21:23










  • Re your 2nd question: What's wrong about doing the estimate for $m=n$?
    – saz
    Jul 29 at 5:39










  • @saz: by fixing $mgeq1,epsilon>0$ I found $N(epsilon,m)geq1$ such that $forall ngeq N(epsilon,m),$ $int_Omega(f_n-f)dP_m<epsilon$. My problem is that $N(epsilon,m)$ depends on $m$. How do I know that $sup_m N(epsilon,m)$ is finite?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 8:58











  • @Bob: thanks, since I have point-wise convergence and boundedness I even don't need to separate the integral in $K$ and $K^c$: I can apply dom convergence directly on $Omega$, right?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 9:45














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm trying to solve Problem 2.4.12 on page 64 of Karatzas-Shreve's book "Brownian motion and stochastic calculus":
enter image description here



My attempt is to use triangle inequality (denoting $Omega=C[0,infty)$)
$$|int_Omega f_ndP_n-int_Omega fdP|leq |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|+|int_Omega fdP_n-int_Omega fdP|quadstar,$$
and estimate the first term with dominated convergence, the second using weak convergence of the measures.



For $epsilon>0$, since $(P_n)_n$ is tight (by Prohorov thm) I can choose a compact $Ksubset Omega$ such that $P_n(K)geq 1-epsilon$.
Fix $mgeq1$, then by dominated convergence for $n$ large enough I have
$$ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|=|int_K (f_n-f)dP_m|+|int_K^c (f_n-f)dP_m|
leq epsilon+epsilonsup_ngeq1,omegain K^c|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|.$$



  1. To conclude I need $f$ to be bounded. Does this follow from the fact that $f$ is the compact-limit of uniformly bounded functions? (Note that I need boundedness also to use weak convergence on the second term of $star$)


  2. Is it correct that if $forall mgeq1$ $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|to_ntoinfty0$, then
    $ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|to_ntoinfty0?$
    To be fair I think it's true only if the first convergence is uniform in $m$.


Thanks in advance :)







share|cite|improve this question



















  • You know that the sequence is uniformly bounded, so the same bound holds also for the pointwise limit
    – Bob
    Jul 28 at 21:23










  • Re your 2nd question: What's wrong about doing the estimate for $m=n$?
    – saz
    Jul 29 at 5:39










  • @saz: by fixing $mgeq1,epsilon>0$ I found $N(epsilon,m)geq1$ such that $forall ngeq N(epsilon,m),$ $int_Omega(f_n-f)dP_m<epsilon$. My problem is that $N(epsilon,m)$ depends on $m$. How do I know that $sup_m N(epsilon,m)$ is finite?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 8:58











  • @Bob: thanks, since I have point-wise convergence and boundedness I even don't need to separate the integral in $K$ and $K^c$: I can apply dom convergence directly on $Omega$, right?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 9:45












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm trying to solve Problem 2.4.12 on page 64 of Karatzas-Shreve's book "Brownian motion and stochastic calculus":
enter image description here



My attempt is to use triangle inequality (denoting $Omega=C[0,infty)$)
$$|int_Omega f_ndP_n-int_Omega fdP|leq |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|+|int_Omega fdP_n-int_Omega fdP|quadstar,$$
and estimate the first term with dominated convergence, the second using weak convergence of the measures.



For $epsilon>0$, since $(P_n)_n$ is tight (by Prohorov thm) I can choose a compact $Ksubset Omega$ such that $P_n(K)geq 1-epsilon$.
Fix $mgeq1$, then by dominated convergence for $n$ large enough I have
$$ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|=|int_K (f_n-f)dP_m|+|int_K^c (f_n-f)dP_m|
leq epsilon+epsilonsup_ngeq1,omegain K^c|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|.$$



  1. To conclude I need $f$ to be bounded. Does this follow from the fact that $f$ is the compact-limit of uniformly bounded functions? (Note that I need boundedness also to use weak convergence on the second term of $star$)


  2. Is it correct that if $forall mgeq1$ $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|to_ntoinfty0$, then
    $ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|to_ntoinfty0?$
    To be fair I think it's true only if the first convergence is uniform in $m$.


Thanks in advance :)







share|cite|improve this question











I'm trying to solve Problem 2.4.12 on page 64 of Karatzas-Shreve's book "Brownian motion and stochastic calculus":
enter image description here



My attempt is to use triangle inequality (denoting $Omega=C[0,infty)$)
$$|int_Omega f_ndP_n-int_Omega fdP|leq |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|+|int_Omega fdP_n-int_Omega fdP|quadstar,$$
and estimate the first term with dominated convergence, the second using weak convergence of the measures.



For $epsilon>0$, since $(P_n)_n$ is tight (by Prohorov thm) I can choose a compact $Ksubset Omega$ such that $P_n(K)geq 1-epsilon$.
Fix $mgeq1$, then by dominated convergence for $n$ large enough I have
$$ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|=|int_K (f_n-f)dP_m|+|int_K^c (f_n-f)dP_m|
leq epsilon+epsilonsup_ngeq1,omegain K^c|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|.$$



  1. To conclude I need $f$ to be bounded. Does this follow from the fact that $f$ is the compact-limit of uniformly bounded functions? (Note that I need boundedness also to use weak convergence on the second term of $star$)


  2. Is it correct that if $forall mgeq1$ $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_m|to_ntoinfty0$, then
    $ |int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|to_ntoinfty0?$
    To be fair I think it's true only if the first convergence is uniform in $m$.


Thanks in advance :)









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 28 at 13:54









Demetrio Masciurett

285




285











  • You know that the sequence is uniformly bounded, so the same bound holds also for the pointwise limit
    – Bob
    Jul 28 at 21:23










  • Re your 2nd question: What's wrong about doing the estimate for $m=n$?
    – saz
    Jul 29 at 5:39










  • @saz: by fixing $mgeq1,epsilon>0$ I found $N(epsilon,m)geq1$ such that $forall ngeq N(epsilon,m),$ $int_Omega(f_n-f)dP_m<epsilon$. My problem is that $N(epsilon,m)$ depends on $m$. How do I know that $sup_m N(epsilon,m)$ is finite?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 8:58











  • @Bob: thanks, since I have point-wise convergence and boundedness I even don't need to separate the integral in $K$ and $K^c$: I can apply dom convergence directly on $Omega$, right?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 9:45
















  • You know that the sequence is uniformly bounded, so the same bound holds also for the pointwise limit
    – Bob
    Jul 28 at 21:23










  • Re your 2nd question: What's wrong about doing the estimate for $m=n$?
    – saz
    Jul 29 at 5:39










  • @saz: by fixing $mgeq1,epsilon>0$ I found $N(epsilon,m)geq1$ such that $forall ngeq N(epsilon,m),$ $int_Omega(f_n-f)dP_m<epsilon$. My problem is that $N(epsilon,m)$ depends on $m$. How do I know that $sup_m N(epsilon,m)$ is finite?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 8:58











  • @Bob: thanks, since I have point-wise convergence and boundedness I even don't need to separate the integral in $K$ and $K^c$: I can apply dom convergence directly on $Omega$, right?
    – Demetrio Masciurett
    Jul 29 at 9:45















You know that the sequence is uniformly bounded, so the same bound holds also for the pointwise limit
– Bob
Jul 28 at 21:23




You know that the sequence is uniformly bounded, so the same bound holds also for the pointwise limit
– Bob
Jul 28 at 21:23












Re your 2nd question: What's wrong about doing the estimate for $m=n$?
– saz
Jul 29 at 5:39




Re your 2nd question: What's wrong about doing the estimate for $m=n$?
– saz
Jul 29 at 5:39












@saz: by fixing $mgeq1,epsilon>0$ I found $N(epsilon,m)geq1$ such that $forall ngeq N(epsilon,m),$ $int_Omega(f_n-f)dP_m<epsilon$. My problem is that $N(epsilon,m)$ depends on $m$. How do I know that $sup_m N(epsilon,m)$ is finite?
– Demetrio Masciurett
Jul 29 at 8:58





@saz: by fixing $mgeq1,epsilon>0$ I found $N(epsilon,m)geq1$ such that $forall ngeq N(epsilon,m),$ $int_Omega(f_n-f)dP_m<epsilon$. My problem is that $N(epsilon,m)$ depends on $m$. How do I know that $sup_m N(epsilon,m)$ is finite?
– Demetrio Masciurett
Jul 29 at 8:58













@Bob: thanks, since I have point-wise convergence and boundedness I even don't need to separate the integral in $K$ and $K^c$: I can apply dom convergence directly on $Omega$, right?
– Demetrio Masciurett
Jul 29 at 9:45




@Bob: thanks, since I have point-wise convergence and boundedness I even don't need to separate the integral in $K$ and $K^c$: I can apply dom convergence directly on $Omega$, right?
– Demetrio Masciurett
Jul 29 at 9:45










1 Answer
1






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1
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Finally got it:



$|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|leq int_K_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n +int_K^c_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n
leq sup_omegain K_epsilon|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|+epsilon||f_n-f||_infty.$



Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, letting $nto infty$ the last term goes to zero by uniform compact convergence of $(f_n)_ngeq 1$ to $f$.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    Finally got it:



    $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|leq int_K_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n +int_K^c_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n
    leq sup_omegain K_epsilon|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|+epsilon||f_n-f||_infty.$



    Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, letting $nto infty$ the last term goes to zero by uniform compact convergence of $(f_n)_ngeq 1$ to $f$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Finally got it:



      $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|leq int_K_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n +int_K^c_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n
      leq sup_omegain K_epsilon|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|+epsilon||f_n-f||_infty.$



      Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, letting $nto infty$ the last term goes to zero by uniform compact convergence of $(f_n)_ngeq 1$ to $f$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        Finally got it:



        $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|leq int_K_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n +int_K^c_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n
        leq sup_omegain K_epsilon|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|+epsilon||f_n-f||_infty.$



        Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, letting $nto infty$ the last term goes to zero by uniform compact convergence of $(f_n)_ngeq 1$ to $f$.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Finally got it:



        $|int_Omega (f_n-f)dP_n|leq int_K_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n +int_K^c_epsilon |f_n-f|dP_n
        leq sup_omegain K_epsilon|f_n(omega)-f(omega)|+epsilon||f_n-f||_infty.$



        Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, letting $nto infty$ the last term goes to zero by uniform compact convergence of $(f_n)_ngeq 1$ to $f$.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Aug 4 at 11:59









        Demetrio Masciurett

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