Is it possible to show that this subset of reals has properties of natural numbers?

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So I heard of the following way to define naturals in real numbers.

Let's call a subset $A$ of reals to be inductive if and only if:

1)it contains $0$.

2)it contains $k+1$ whenever it contains $k$.

Than, we define real number to be natural if it is contained in every inductive set.
Now, can we show that set of all natural real numbers is closed under addition and multiplication, and that $0$ is least element (with real number ordering) ? Or maybe it is possible to prove this properties with other definition of naturals in reals ?







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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    So I heard of the following way to define naturals in real numbers.

    Let's call a subset $A$ of reals to be inductive if and only if:

    1)it contains $0$.

    2)it contains $k+1$ whenever it contains $k$.

    Than, we define real number to be natural if it is contained in every inductive set.
    Now, can we show that set of all natural real numbers is closed under addition and multiplication, and that $0$ is least element (with real number ordering) ? Or maybe it is possible to prove this properties with other definition of naturals in reals ?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      So I heard of the following way to define naturals in real numbers.

      Let's call a subset $A$ of reals to be inductive if and only if:

      1)it contains $0$.

      2)it contains $k+1$ whenever it contains $k$.

      Than, we define real number to be natural if it is contained in every inductive set.
      Now, can we show that set of all natural real numbers is closed under addition and multiplication, and that $0$ is least element (with real number ordering) ? Or maybe it is possible to prove this properties with other definition of naturals in reals ?







      share|cite|improve this question











      So I heard of the following way to define naturals in real numbers.

      Let's call a subset $A$ of reals to be inductive if and only if:

      1)it contains $0$.

      2)it contains $k+1$ whenever it contains $k$.

      Than, we define real number to be natural if it is contained in every inductive set.
      Now, can we show that set of all natural real numbers is closed under addition and multiplication, and that $0$ is least element (with real number ordering) ? Or maybe it is possible to prove this properties with other definition of naturals in reals ?









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      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 28 at 13:24









      Юрій Ярош

      981513




      981513




















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          Let $mathbb N$ denote the set of elements that are contained in every inductive subset of $mathbb R$.



          It is immediate that $0inmathbb N$ and further the set $[0,infty)$ is inductive so that $mathbb Nsubseteq[0,infty)$, showing that $0$ serves as least element of $mathbb N$.



          Now define: $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N[n+k,nkinmathbb N]$$and prove that $K$ is inductive.



          Then $mathbb Nsubseteq Ksubseteqmathbb N$ so that $mathbb N=K$, and you are ready.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:35










          • In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:40










          • So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:47










          • Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:49











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $mathbb N$ denote the set of elements that are contained in every inductive subset of $mathbb R$.



          It is immediate that $0inmathbb N$ and further the set $[0,infty)$ is inductive so that $mathbb Nsubseteq[0,infty)$, showing that $0$ serves as least element of $mathbb N$.



          Now define: $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N[n+k,nkinmathbb N]$$and prove that $K$ is inductive.



          Then $mathbb Nsubseteq Ksubseteqmathbb N$ so that $mathbb N=K$, and you are ready.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:35










          • In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:40










          • So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:47










          • Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:49















          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $mathbb N$ denote the set of elements that are contained in every inductive subset of $mathbb R$.



          It is immediate that $0inmathbb N$ and further the set $[0,infty)$ is inductive so that $mathbb Nsubseteq[0,infty)$, showing that $0$ serves as least element of $mathbb N$.



          Now define: $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N[n+k,nkinmathbb N]$$and prove that $K$ is inductive.



          Then $mathbb Nsubseteq Ksubseteqmathbb N$ so that $mathbb N=K$, and you are ready.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:35










          • In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:40










          • So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:47










          • Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:49













          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $mathbb N$ denote the set of elements that are contained in every inductive subset of $mathbb R$.



          It is immediate that $0inmathbb N$ and further the set $[0,infty)$ is inductive so that $mathbb Nsubseteq[0,infty)$, showing that $0$ serves as least element of $mathbb N$.



          Now define: $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N[n+k,nkinmathbb N]$$and prove that $K$ is inductive.



          Then $mathbb Nsubseteq Ksubseteqmathbb N$ so that $mathbb N=K$, and you are ready.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Let $mathbb N$ denote the set of elements that are contained in every inductive subset of $mathbb R$.



          It is immediate that $0inmathbb N$ and further the set $[0,infty)$ is inductive so that $mathbb Nsubseteq[0,infty)$, showing that $0$ serves as least element of $mathbb N$.



          Now define: $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N[n+k,nkinmathbb N]$$and prove that $K$ is inductive.



          Then $mathbb Nsubseteq Ksubseteqmathbb N$ so that $mathbb N=K$, and you are ready.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 28 at 14:46


























          answered Jul 28 at 13:43









          Vera

          1,696313




          1,696313











          • Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:35










          • In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:40










          • So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:47










          • Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:49

















          • Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:35










          • In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:40










          • So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
            – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
            Jul 28 at 15:47










          • Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
            – Vera
            Jul 28 at 15:49
















          Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
          – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
          Jul 28 at 15:35




          Sorry, I am not familiar with this notation $mathhbb N[n+k,nkinmathhbb N]$. Maybe you can call it's name, so I can find it in the internet.
          – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
          Jul 28 at 15:35












          In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
          – Vera
          Jul 28 at 15:40




          In words $K$ is by definition the subset of $mathbb N$ that contains exactly the elements $ninmathbb N$ that satisfy $n+kinmathbb N$ and $nkinmathbb N$ for every $kinmathbb N$.
          – Vera
          Jul 28 at 15:40












          So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
          – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
          Jul 28 at 15:47




          So could it be written in the form $$K:=ninmathbb Nmid forall kinmathbb N,n+k,nkinmathbb N,$$ ?
          – Ð®Ñ€Ñ–й Ярош
          Jul 28 at 15:47












          Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
          – Vera
          Jul 28 at 15:49





          Something like that , yes. $mathbb N[n+k,nkin nkinmathbb N]$ is not a notation on its own.as you seemed to think.
          – Vera
          Jul 28 at 15:49













           

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