Is this method of definition of Borel $sigma$-fields complete?

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A Borel $sigma$-field is the smallest $sigma$ field that contains $(-infty,x],: x in mathbbR$




Is this definition complete? I have been trying to use unions, intersections and complements of such sets to prove that open sets (say, $(a,b)$) belong to the Borel $sigma$-field, but I have been unable to do so. I don't understand how to prove open intervals belong in the field. I have only been able to prove that $(a,b]$ belong in the field. I did this by observing that $(-infty,a]$ belongs, so its complement, i.e. $(a, infty)$ belongs. So intersection of $(a,infty)$ and $(-infty, b]$, i.e. $(a, b]$ belongs. But I am stuck here.



Is the definition complete? Or do we need to assume that intervals of type $[x, infty)$ also belong? If the definition is complete, how do we prove that the Borel $sigma$-field includes open intervals?







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    up vote
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    favorite
    1













    A Borel $sigma$-field is the smallest $sigma$ field that contains $(-infty,x],: x in mathbbR$




    Is this definition complete? I have been trying to use unions, intersections and complements of such sets to prove that open sets (say, $(a,b)$) belong to the Borel $sigma$-field, but I have been unable to do so. I don't understand how to prove open intervals belong in the field. I have only been able to prove that $(a,b]$ belong in the field. I did this by observing that $(-infty,a]$ belongs, so its complement, i.e. $(a, infty)$ belongs. So intersection of $(a,infty)$ and $(-infty, b]$, i.e. $(a, b]$ belongs. But I am stuck here.



    Is the definition complete? Or do we need to assume that intervals of type $[x, infty)$ also belong? If the definition is complete, how do we prove that the Borel $sigma$-field includes open intervals?







    share|cite|improve this question





















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      A Borel $sigma$-field is the smallest $sigma$ field that contains $(-infty,x],: x in mathbbR$




      Is this definition complete? I have been trying to use unions, intersections and complements of such sets to prove that open sets (say, $(a,b)$) belong to the Borel $sigma$-field, but I have been unable to do so. I don't understand how to prove open intervals belong in the field. I have only been able to prove that $(a,b]$ belong in the field. I did this by observing that $(-infty,a]$ belongs, so its complement, i.e. $(a, infty)$ belongs. So intersection of $(a,infty)$ and $(-infty, b]$, i.e. $(a, b]$ belongs. But I am stuck here.



      Is the definition complete? Or do we need to assume that intervals of type $[x, infty)$ also belong? If the definition is complete, how do we prove that the Borel $sigma$-field includes open intervals?







      share|cite|improve this question












      A Borel $sigma$-field is the smallest $sigma$ field that contains $(-infty,x],: x in mathbbR$




      Is this definition complete? I have been trying to use unions, intersections and complements of such sets to prove that open sets (say, $(a,b)$) belong to the Borel $sigma$-field, but I have been unable to do so. I don't understand how to prove open intervals belong in the field. I have only been able to prove that $(a,b]$ belong in the field. I did this by observing that $(-infty,a]$ belongs, so its complement, i.e. $(a, infty)$ belongs. So intersection of $(a,infty)$ and $(-infty, b]$, i.e. $(a, b]$ belongs. But I am stuck here.



      Is the definition complete? Or do we need to assume that intervals of type $[x, infty)$ also belong? If the definition is complete, how do we prove that the Borel $sigma$-field includes open intervals?









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 28 at 14:03









      FreezingFire

      696220




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          Let $newcommandcfmathcalPcf$ be the sigma-field of Borel sets.
          You can prove
          $(-infty,b)incf$ by observing $(-infty,b)=bigcup_n=1^infty(-infty,b-1/n]$. You know $(a,infty)incf$, so $(a,b)=(a,infty)
          cap(-infty,b)incf$ etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
            – FreezingFire
            Jul 28 at 14:20










          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $newcommandcfmathcalPcf$ be the sigma-field of Borel sets.
          You can prove
          $(-infty,b)incf$ by observing $(-infty,b)=bigcup_n=1^infty(-infty,b-1/n]$. You know $(a,infty)incf$, so $(a,b)=(a,infty)
          cap(-infty,b)incf$ etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
            – FreezingFire
            Jul 28 at 14:20














          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $newcommandcfmathcalPcf$ be the sigma-field of Borel sets.
          You can prove
          $(-infty,b)incf$ by observing $(-infty,b)=bigcup_n=1^infty(-infty,b-1/n]$. You know $(a,infty)incf$, so $(a,b)=(a,infty)
          cap(-infty,b)incf$ etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
            – FreezingFire
            Jul 28 at 14:20












          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $newcommandcfmathcalPcf$ be the sigma-field of Borel sets.
          You can prove
          $(-infty,b)incf$ by observing $(-infty,b)=bigcup_n=1^infty(-infty,b-1/n]$. You know $(a,infty)incf$, so $(a,b)=(a,infty)
          cap(-infty,b)incf$ etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Let $newcommandcfmathcalPcf$ be the sigma-field of Borel sets.
          You can prove
          $(-infty,b)incf$ by observing $(-infty,b)=bigcup_n=1^infty(-infty,b-1/n]$. You know $(a,infty)incf$, so $(a,b)=(a,infty)
          cap(-infty,b)incf$ etc.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 28 at 14:08









          Lord Shark the Unknown

          84.6k950111




          84.6k950111











          • Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
            – FreezingFire
            Jul 28 at 14:20
















          • Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
            – FreezingFire
            Jul 28 at 14:20















          Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
          – FreezingFire
          Jul 28 at 14:20




          Nice answer! Also I noticed that $(-infty,b)$ is a countably infinite union of sets already known to be in the field, which is why this approach works. And I loved how this approach expressed an open set as a limit of closed sets (closed at one end). Thank you for your answer!
          – FreezingFire
          Jul 28 at 14:20












           

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