open set is the disjoint union of a countable collection of open intervals
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I don't understand that $I_x_xin O$ is disjoint. For example, $O = (1 , 2)$. Let $x = 1.5$. Then, $a_x = 1$, and $b_x = 2$. Therefore, $I_x = (1, 2)$. Let $y = 1.6$. Then, similarly, $I_y = (1, 2)$. That is, $I_x$ and $I_y$ are not disjoint, but equal.
Could you explain how $I_x_x in O$ can be disjoint?
real-analysis
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up vote
6
down vote
favorite
I don't understand that $I_x_xin O$ is disjoint. For example, $O = (1 , 2)$. Let $x = 1.5$. Then, $a_x = 1$, and $b_x = 2$. Therefore, $I_x = (1, 2)$. Let $y = 1.6$. Then, similarly, $I_y = (1, 2)$. That is, $I_x$ and $I_y$ are not disjoint, but equal.
Could you explain how $I_x_x in O$ can be disjoint?
real-analysis
Royden Fitzpatrick?
â BCLC
Jul 28 at 9:34
add a comment |Â
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
up vote
6
down vote
favorite
I don't understand that $I_x_xin O$ is disjoint. For example, $O = (1 , 2)$. Let $x = 1.5$. Then, $a_x = 1$, and $b_x = 2$. Therefore, $I_x = (1, 2)$. Let $y = 1.6$. Then, similarly, $I_y = (1, 2)$. That is, $I_x$ and $I_y$ are not disjoint, but equal.
Could you explain how $I_x_x in O$ can be disjoint?
real-analysis
I don't understand that $I_x_xin O$ is disjoint. For example, $O = (1 , 2)$. Let $x = 1.5$. Then, $a_x = 1$, and $b_x = 2$. Therefore, $I_x = (1, 2)$. Let $y = 1.6$. Then, similarly, $I_y = (1, 2)$. That is, $I_x$ and $I_y$ are not disjoint, but equal.
Could you explain how $I_x_x in O$ can be disjoint?
real-analysis
edited Jul 28 at 10:31
Asaf Karagila
291k31402732
291k31402732
asked Jul 28 at 9:17
Sihyun Kim
701210
701210
Royden Fitzpatrick?
â BCLC
Jul 28 at 9:34
add a comment |Â
Royden Fitzpatrick?
â BCLC
Jul 28 at 9:34
Royden Fitzpatrick?
â BCLC
Jul 28 at 9:34
Royden Fitzpatrick?
â BCLC
Jul 28 at 9:34
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
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votes
up vote
7
down vote
accepted
The theorem doesn't require $I_x$ and $I_y$ to be disjoint for every $x$ and $y$; only that the collection is mutually disjoint. That is, we require that if $I_x cap I_y not = emptyset$, then $I_x = I_y$. (This is a bit sloppily stated in the proof, though.)
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
7
down vote
accepted
The theorem doesn't require $I_x$ and $I_y$ to be disjoint for every $x$ and $y$; only that the collection is mutually disjoint. That is, we require that if $I_x cap I_y not = emptyset$, then $I_x = I_y$. (This is a bit sloppily stated in the proof, though.)
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
accepted
The theorem doesn't require $I_x$ and $I_y$ to be disjoint for every $x$ and $y$; only that the collection is mutually disjoint. That is, we require that if $I_x cap I_y not = emptyset$, then $I_x = I_y$. (This is a bit sloppily stated in the proof, though.)
add a comment |Â
up vote
7
down vote
accepted
up vote
7
down vote
accepted
The theorem doesn't require $I_x$ and $I_y$ to be disjoint for every $x$ and $y$; only that the collection is mutually disjoint. That is, we require that if $I_x cap I_y not = emptyset$, then $I_x = I_y$. (This is a bit sloppily stated in the proof, though.)
The theorem doesn't require $I_x$ and $I_y$ to be disjoint for every $x$ and $y$; only that the collection is mutually disjoint. That is, we require that if $I_x cap I_y not = emptyset$, then $I_x = I_y$. (This is a bit sloppily stated in the proof, though.)
answered Jul 28 at 9:21
Patrick Stevens
26.8k52669
26.8k52669
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add a comment |Â
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Royden Fitzpatrick?
â BCLC
Jul 28 at 9:34