Convergence of a sequence of functions to a continuous limit

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Suppose that $f_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $X$ s.t. $f_nto f$ for all $xin D$, where $D$ is a dense subset of $X$ and $f$ is continuous. Is it true that $f_nto f$ for all $xin X$.




Let $ynotin D$ and suppose that $f_n(y)to g(y)$. Then $g(y)$ must be equal $f(y)$. How does one show that $f_n(y)$ converges?







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  • Are you assuming that $f$ is continuous too?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 at 16:14










  • Yes. It is continuous
    – Robert W.
    Jul 29 at 16:14














up vote
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down vote

favorite












Suppose that $f_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $X$ s.t. $f_nto f$ for all $xin D$, where $D$ is a dense subset of $X$ and $f$ is continuous. Is it true that $f_nto f$ for all $xin X$.




Let $ynotin D$ and suppose that $f_n(y)to g(y)$. Then $g(y)$ must be equal $f(y)$. How does one show that $f_n(y)$ converges?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Are you assuming that $f$ is continuous too?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 at 16:14










  • Yes. It is continuous
    – Robert W.
    Jul 29 at 16:14












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Suppose that $f_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $X$ s.t. $f_nto f$ for all $xin D$, where $D$ is a dense subset of $X$ and $f$ is continuous. Is it true that $f_nto f$ for all $xin X$.




Let $ynotin D$ and suppose that $f_n(y)to g(y)$. Then $g(y)$ must be equal $f(y)$. How does one show that $f_n(y)$ converges?







share|cite|improve this question













Suppose that $f_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $X$ s.t. $f_nto f$ for all $xin D$, where $D$ is a dense subset of $X$ and $f$ is continuous. Is it true that $f_nto f$ for all $xin X$.




Let $ynotin D$ and suppose that $f_n(y)to g(y)$. Then $g(y)$ must be equal $f(y)$. How does one show that $f_n(y)$ converges?









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 29 at 16:17









José Carlos Santos

112k1696173




112k1696173









asked Jul 29 at 16:13









Robert W.

35818




35818











  • Are you assuming that $f$ is continuous too?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 at 16:14










  • Yes. It is continuous
    – Robert W.
    Jul 29 at 16:14
















  • Are you assuming that $f$ is continuous too?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 at 16:14










  • Yes. It is continuous
    – Robert W.
    Jul 29 at 16:14















Are you assuming that $f$ is continuous too?
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 at 16:14




Are you assuming that $f$ is continuous too?
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 at 16:14












Yes. It is continuous
– Robert W.
Jul 29 at 16:14




Yes. It is continuous
– Robert W.
Jul 29 at 16:14










1 Answer
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4
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No, it is not true. Take $X=[0,1]$, $D=[0,1)$, $f(x)=0$ and $f_n(x)=x^n$. Then$$(forall xin D):lim_ntoinftyf_n(x)=f(x),$$but $lim_ntoinftyf_n(1)=1neq f(1)$.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

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    active

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    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    No, it is not true. Take $X=[0,1]$, $D=[0,1)$, $f(x)=0$ and $f_n(x)=x^n$. Then$$(forall xin D):lim_ntoinftyf_n(x)=f(x),$$but $lim_ntoinftyf_n(1)=1neq f(1)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      No, it is not true. Take $X=[0,1]$, $D=[0,1)$, $f(x)=0$ and $f_n(x)=x^n$. Then$$(forall xin D):lim_ntoinftyf_n(x)=f(x),$$but $lim_ntoinftyf_n(1)=1neq f(1)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted






        No, it is not true. Take $X=[0,1]$, $D=[0,1)$, $f(x)=0$ and $f_n(x)=x^n$. Then$$(forall xin D):lim_ntoinftyf_n(x)=f(x),$$but $lim_ntoinftyf_n(1)=1neq f(1)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        No, it is not true. Take $X=[0,1]$, $D=[0,1)$, $f(x)=0$ and $f_n(x)=x^n$. Then$$(forall xin D):lim_ntoinftyf_n(x)=f(x),$$but $lim_ntoinftyf_n(1)=1neq f(1)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 29 at 16:17









        José Carlos Santos

        112k1696173




        112k1696173






















             

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