Decomposition of Determinant of Sub-Matrices of a Matrix

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Consider an $n times n$ matrix $bf A$ over a field. Let $bf A$ is constructed by the product of $n times n$ matrices $B_i$, for $1leq i leq m$ which means
$$
bf A=prod_i=1^m, bf B_i, .
$$
From Linear Algebra we know that the relation between determinant of $bf A$ and $bf B_i$'s are as follows:
$$
det(bf A)=prod_i=1^m, det(bf B_i), .
$$
Suppose that an $k times k$ sub-matrix of $bf A$ for $1leq k leq n$ is denoted with $bf A^(k)$.



My question:



Is there a condition that can be used to check $bf A^(k)$ is singular or non-singular matrix based on the determinants of $bf B_i$'s or sub-matrices of $bf B_i$'s.



Thanks for your assistance in advance.







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  • Every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 8:47










  • @user1551 I can not understand what did you mean by your comment. Is it possible to ask you to explain more. Thanks
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 8:50










  • I mean your question is vague. $det A^(k)$ is a polynomial in the entries of $B_1,B_2,ldots,B_m$. Since every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$, the answer to your question is undoubtedly yes, because "$det A^(k)=0$" is already such a condition.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 9:14










  • @user1551 Maybe the first comment of this question in mathoverflow be helpful to make clean my question.
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 9:21







  • 1




    In general no, but even in the case $k=1$ and $m=2$ I'd have to multiply it out to decide. If you know a better way in that case then Gauss Bonnet tells you how to do the general case.
    – ancientmathematician
    Jul 17 at 6:35














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Consider an $n times n$ matrix $bf A$ over a field. Let $bf A$ is constructed by the product of $n times n$ matrices $B_i$, for $1leq i leq m$ which means
$$
bf A=prod_i=1^m, bf B_i, .
$$
From Linear Algebra we know that the relation between determinant of $bf A$ and $bf B_i$'s are as follows:
$$
det(bf A)=prod_i=1^m, det(bf B_i), .
$$
Suppose that an $k times k$ sub-matrix of $bf A$ for $1leq k leq n$ is denoted with $bf A^(k)$.



My question:



Is there a condition that can be used to check $bf A^(k)$ is singular or non-singular matrix based on the determinants of $bf B_i$'s or sub-matrices of $bf B_i$'s.



Thanks for your assistance in advance.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 8:47










  • @user1551 I can not understand what did you mean by your comment. Is it possible to ask you to explain more. Thanks
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 8:50










  • I mean your question is vague. $det A^(k)$ is a polynomial in the entries of $B_1,B_2,ldots,B_m$. Since every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$, the answer to your question is undoubtedly yes, because "$det A^(k)=0$" is already such a condition.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 9:14










  • @user1551 Maybe the first comment of this question in mathoverflow be helpful to make clean my question.
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 9:21







  • 1




    In general no, but even in the case $k=1$ and $m=2$ I'd have to multiply it out to decide. If you know a better way in that case then Gauss Bonnet tells you how to do the general case.
    – ancientmathematician
    Jul 17 at 6:35












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Consider an $n times n$ matrix $bf A$ over a field. Let $bf A$ is constructed by the product of $n times n$ matrices $B_i$, for $1leq i leq m$ which means
$$
bf A=prod_i=1^m, bf B_i, .
$$
From Linear Algebra we know that the relation between determinant of $bf A$ and $bf B_i$'s are as follows:
$$
det(bf A)=prod_i=1^m, det(bf B_i), .
$$
Suppose that an $k times k$ sub-matrix of $bf A$ for $1leq k leq n$ is denoted with $bf A^(k)$.



My question:



Is there a condition that can be used to check $bf A^(k)$ is singular or non-singular matrix based on the determinants of $bf B_i$'s or sub-matrices of $bf B_i$'s.



Thanks for your assistance in advance.







share|cite|improve this question













Consider an $n times n$ matrix $bf A$ over a field. Let $bf A$ is constructed by the product of $n times n$ matrices $B_i$, for $1leq i leq m$ which means
$$
bf A=prod_i=1^m, bf B_i, .
$$
From Linear Algebra we know that the relation between determinant of $bf A$ and $bf B_i$'s are as follows:
$$
det(bf A)=prod_i=1^m, det(bf B_i), .
$$
Suppose that an $k times k$ sub-matrix of $bf A$ for $1leq k leq n$ is denoted with $bf A^(k)$.



My question:



Is there a condition that can be used to check $bf A^(k)$ is singular or non-singular matrix based on the determinants of $bf B_i$'s or sub-matrices of $bf B_i$'s.



Thanks for your assistance in advance.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 16 at 7:46
























asked Jul 15 at 20:44









user0410

1287




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  • Every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 8:47










  • @user1551 I can not understand what did you mean by your comment. Is it possible to ask you to explain more. Thanks
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 8:50










  • I mean your question is vague. $det A^(k)$ is a polynomial in the entries of $B_1,B_2,ldots,B_m$. Since every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$, the answer to your question is undoubtedly yes, because "$det A^(k)=0$" is already such a condition.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 9:14










  • @user1551 Maybe the first comment of this question in mathoverflow be helpful to make clean my question.
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 9:21







  • 1




    In general no, but even in the case $k=1$ and $m=2$ I'd have to multiply it out to decide. If you know a better way in that case then Gauss Bonnet tells you how to do the general case.
    – ancientmathematician
    Jul 17 at 6:35
















  • Every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 8:47










  • @user1551 I can not understand what did you mean by your comment. Is it possible to ask you to explain more. Thanks
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 8:50










  • I mean your question is vague. $det A^(k)$ is a polynomial in the entries of $B_1,B_2,ldots,B_m$. Since every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$, the answer to your question is undoubtedly yes, because "$det A^(k)=0$" is already such a condition.
    – user1551
    Jul 16 at 9:14










  • @user1551 Maybe the first comment of this question in mathoverflow be helpful to make clean my question.
    – user0410
    Jul 16 at 9:21







  • 1




    In general no, but even in the case $k=1$ and $m=2$ I'd have to multiply it out to decide. If you know a better way in that case then Gauss Bonnet tells you how to do the general case.
    – ancientmathematician
    Jul 17 at 6:35















Every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$.
– user1551
Jul 16 at 8:47




Every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$.
– user1551
Jul 16 at 8:47












@user1551 I can not understand what did you mean by your comment. Is it possible to ask you to explain more. Thanks
– user0410
Jul 16 at 8:50




@user1551 I can not understand what did you mean by your comment. Is it possible to ask you to explain more. Thanks
– user0410
Jul 16 at 8:50












I mean your question is vague. $det A^(k)$ is a polynomial in the entries of $B_1,B_2,ldots,B_m$. Since every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$, the answer to your question is undoubtedly yes, because "$det A^(k)=0$" is already such a condition.
– user1551
Jul 16 at 9:14




I mean your question is vague. $det A^(k)$ is a polynomial in the entries of $B_1,B_2,ldots,B_m$. Since every entry of $B_i$ is a submatrix of $B_i$, the answer to your question is undoubtedly yes, because "$det A^(k)=0$" is already such a condition.
– user1551
Jul 16 at 9:14












@user1551 Maybe the first comment of this question in mathoverflow be helpful to make clean my question.
– user0410
Jul 16 at 9:21





@user1551 Maybe the first comment of this question in mathoverflow be helpful to make clean my question.
– user0410
Jul 16 at 9:21





1




1




In general no, but even in the case $k=1$ and $m=2$ I'd have to multiply it out to decide. If you know a better way in that case then Gauss Bonnet tells you how to do the general case.
– ancientmathematician
Jul 17 at 6:35




In general no, but even in the case $k=1$ and $m=2$ I'd have to multiply it out to decide. If you know a better way in that case then Gauss Bonnet tells you how to do the general case.
– ancientmathematician
Jul 17 at 6:35















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