Group containing both $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$

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Prove that there doesnot exist any proper subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing both $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$
Since $5$ and $7$ are coprime hence there cannot exist any proper subgroup containing multiples of both $5$ and $7$ if it contains then it must be the group $mathbbZ$ itself
Is m above reason correct please help?







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    Prove that there doesnot exist any proper subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing both $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$
    Since $5$ and $7$ are coprime hence there cannot exist any proper subgroup containing multiples of both $5$ and $7$ if it contains then it must be the group $mathbbZ$ itself
    Is m above reason correct please help?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      Prove that there doesnot exist any proper subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing both $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$
      Since $5$ and $7$ are coprime hence there cannot exist any proper subgroup containing multiples of both $5$ and $7$ if it contains then it must be the group $mathbbZ$ itself
      Is m above reason correct please help?







      share|cite|improve this question













      Prove that there doesnot exist any proper subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing both $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$
      Since $5$ and $7$ are coprime hence there cannot exist any proper subgroup containing multiples of both $5$ and $7$ if it contains then it must be the group $mathbbZ$ itself
      Is m above reason correct please help?









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 15 at 12:33









      cansomeonehelpmeout

      4,7593830




      4,7593830









      asked Jul 15 at 12:25









      Shrimon Mukherjee

      195




      195




















          3 Answers
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          You've basically just rephrased the problem, throwing in the word coprime, which is essential, but you haven't really shown how. Unless you have a theorem somewhere saying something like "No proper subgroup of $(Bbb Z,+)$ can contain two coprime elements", I wouldn't find that enough.



          Try this: show specifically why a subgroup containing both $5$ and $7$ must contain $1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Why should it contains 1
            – Shrimon Mukherjee
            Jul 15 at 12:37






          • 1




            @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
            – Arthur
            Jul 15 at 12:40


















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          If a subgroup $G le (mathbbZ, +)$ contains $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$ then it also contains



          $$1 = 50 - 49 = 10cdot 5 - 7 cdot 7$$



          so $G = mathbbZ$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            The key is that 5 and 7 are indeed coprime, but the numbers themselves are irrelevant. In fact, you might see it clearer if you turn to a more general situation:



            Claim. If $m,n in mathbbZ$ are two coprime integers, then the only subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$ is precisely $mathbbZ$.



            Proof. Let $H subseteq mathbbZ$ be a subgrup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$. Clearly $mathbbZ=1mathbbZ$, so it suffices to show that $1 in mathbbZ$.



            Since $m$ and $n$ are coprime, by Bézout's identity we have that
            $$mx+ny=1$$
            for some $x,y in mathbbZ$.
            Besides, $m,n in H$ and $H$ is closed under addition, so it follows that $1 in H$ and we are done.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              5
              down vote













              You've basically just rephrased the problem, throwing in the word coprime, which is essential, but you haven't really shown how. Unless you have a theorem somewhere saying something like "No proper subgroup of $(Bbb Z,+)$ can contain two coprime elements", I wouldn't find that enough.



              Try this: show specifically why a subgroup containing both $5$ and $7$ must contain $1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Why should it contains 1
                – Shrimon Mukherjee
                Jul 15 at 12:37






              • 1




                @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
                – Arthur
                Jul 15 at 12:40















              up vote
              5
              down vote













              You've basically just rephrased the problem, throwing in the word coprime, which is essential, but you haven't really shown how. Unless you have a theorem somewhere saying something like "No proper subgroup of $(Bbb Z,+)$ can contain two coprime elements", I wouldn't find that enough.



              Try this: show specifically why a subgroup containing both $5$ and $7$ must contain $1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Why should it contains 1
                – Shrimon Mukherjee
                Jul 15 at 12:37






              • 1




                @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
                – Arthur
                Jul 15 at 12:40













              up vote
              5
              down vote










              up vote
              5
              down vote









              You've basically just rephrased the problem, throwing in the word coprime, which is essential, but you haven't really shown how. Unless you have a theorem somewhere saying something like "No proper subgroup of $(Bbb Z,+)$ can contain two coprime elements", I wouldn't find that enough.



              Try this: show specifically why a subgroup containing both $5$ and $7$ must contain $1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer













              You've basically just rephrased the problem, throwing in the word coprime, which is essential, but you haven't really shown how. Unless you have a theorem somewhere saying something like "No proper subgroup of $(Bbb Z,+)$ can contain two coprime elements", I wouldn't find that enough.



              Try this: show specifically why a subgroup containing both $5$ and $7$ must contain $1$.







              share|cite|improve this answer













              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer











              answered Jul 15 at 12:28









              Arthur

              99k793175




              99k793175











              • Why should it contains 1
                – Shrimon Mukherjee
                Jul 15 at 12:37






              • 1




                @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
                – Arthur
                Jul 15 at 12:40

















              • Why should it contains 1
                – Shrimon Mukherjee
                Jul 15 at 12:37






              • 1




                @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
                – Arthur
                Jul 15 at 12:40
















              Why should it contains 1
              – Shrimon Mukherjee
              Jul 15 at 12:37




              Why should it contains 1
              – Shrimon Mukherjee
              Jul 15 at 12:37




              1




              1




              @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
              – Arthur
              Jul 15 at 12:40





              @ShrimonMukherjee List all the elements between $0$ and $20$ which you can prove that the group contains, using that the group contains $5$ and $7$. You ought to be able to get to $1$ that way.
              – Arthur
              Jul 15 at 12:40











              up vote
              3
              down vote













              If a subgroup $G le (mathbbZ, +)$ contains $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$ then it also contains



              $$1 = 50 - 49 = 10cdot 5 - 7 cdot 7$$



              so $G = mathbbZ$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                If a subgroup $G le (mathbbZ, +)$ contains $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$ then it also contains



                $$1 = 50 - 49 = 10cdot 5 - 7 cdot 7$$



                so $G = mathbbZ$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  If a subgroup $G le (mathbbZ, +)$ contains $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$ then it also contains



                  $$1 = 50 - 49 = 10cdot 5 - 7 cdot 7$$



                  so $G = mathbbZ$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  If a subgroup $G le (mathbbZ, +)$ contains $5mathbbZ$ and $7mathbbZ$ then it also contains



                  $$1 = 50 - 49 = 10cdot 5 - 7 cdot 7$$



                  so $G = mathbbZ$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 15 at 13:57









                  mechanodroid

                  22.3k52041




                  22.3k52041




















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      The key is that 5 and 7 are indeed coprime, but the numbers themselves are irrelevant. In fact, you might see it clearer if you turn to a more general situation:



                      Claim. If $m,n in mathbbZ$ are two coprime integers, then the only subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$ is precisely $mathbbZ$.



                      Proof. Let $H subseteq mathbbZ$ be a subgrup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$. Clearly $mathbbZ=1mathbbZ$, so it suffices to show that $1 in mathbbZ$.



                      Since $m$ and $n$ are coprime, by Bézout's identity we have that
                      $$mx+ny=1$$
                      for some $x,y in mathbbZ$.
                      Besides, $m,n in H$ and $H$ is closed under addition, so it follows that $1 in H$ and we are done.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        The key is that 5 and 7 are indeed coprime, but the numbers themselves are irrelevant. In fact, you might see it clearer if you turn to a more general situation:



                        Claim. If $m,n in mathbbZ$ are two coprime integers, then the only subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$ is precisely $mathbbZ$.



                        Proof. Let $H subseteq mathbbZ$ be a subgrup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$. Clearly $mathbbZ=1mathbbZ$, so it suffices to show that $1 in mathbbZ$.



                        Since $m$ and $n$ are coprime, by Bézout's identity we have that
                        $$mx+ny=1$$
                        for some $x,y in mathbbZ$.
                        Besides, $m,n in H$ and $H$ is closed under addition, so it follows that $1 in H$ and we are done.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          The key is that 5 and 7 are indeed coprime, but the numbers themselves are irrelevant. In fact, you might see it clearer if you turn to a more general situation:



                          Claim. If $m,n in mathbbZ$ are two coprime integers, then the only subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$ is precisely $mathbbZ$.



                          Proof. Let $H subseteq mathbbZ$ be a subgrup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$. Clearly $mathbbZ=1mathbbZ$, so it suffices to show that $1 in mathbbZ$.



                          Since $m$ and $n$ are coprime, by Bézout's identity we have that
                          $$mx+ny=1$$
                          for some $x,y in mathbbZ$.
                          Besides, $m,n in H$ and $H$ is closed under addition, so it follows that $1 in H$ and we are done.






                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          The key is that 5 and 7 are indeed coprime, but the numbers themselves are irrelevant. In fact, you might see it clearer if you turn to a more general situation:



                          Claim. If $m,n in mathbbZ$ are two coprime integers, then the only subgroup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$ is precisely $mathbbZ$.



                          Proof. Let $H subseteq mathbbZ$ be a subgrup of $(mathbbZ,+)$ containing $mmathbbZ$ and $nmathbbZ$. Clearly $mathbbZ=1mathbbZ$, so it suffices to show that $1 in mathbbZ$.



                          Since $m$ and $n$ are coprime, by Bézout's identity we have that
                          $$mx+ny=1$$
                          for some $x,y in mathbbZ$.
                          Besides, $m,n in H$ and $H$ is closed under addition, so it follows that $1 in H$ and we are done.







                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          answered Jul 16 at 19:41









                          Don

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