LLN and CLT on a sum with a random number of terms

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Consider a random sequence $ (N_n)_n geq 1 subset mathbbN^* $ such that $ mathbbP( lim N_n = infty ) = 1 $



Let $ (X_n)_n geq 1 $ be an iid sequence with $ m = mathbbE[X_1] $ and $ sigma^2 = mathbbV[X_1] $



We define $ Z_n = sqrtfracnsigma^2( overlineX_n - m ) $



$ bullet $ Show that $ ( overlineX_N_n)_n geq 1 rightarrow m : $ almost surely



$ bullet $ Show that $(Z_N_n) $ converges in distribution towards $ mathcalN(0,1) $




How could I justify neatly this exercise?



I've tried writing a few things ,



Let $ A = lim N_n = infty $ , $ forall omega in A $, we get : $ frac1N_n( omega) sum_k=1^N_n( omega) X_k (omega) rightarrow m $ by LLN ?



With the CLT we get $ Z_n rightarrow mathcalN(0,1) $ and by convergence of measures it follows that



For $ epsilon > 0 $



So $ exists K_1 geq 1, forall n geq K_1, | mathbbE[f(Z_n)] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon/2 : : : $ with f continuous and bounded



And as $ N_n rightarrow infty $ in probability this means that



$ exists K_2 > 0 geq 1, forall n geq K_2, mathbbP(N_n < K_1) leq epsilon/ f(2M) $



So, $ forall n leq K_2, $ $ | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1_ (N_n < K_1) cup ( (N_n geq K_1) ] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon /2 + | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1( N_n < K_1) ] $ ..... ?



What would be a correct way of writing all this? Thanks in advance







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  • What do you mean exactly by a "random sequence $N_n$"?
    – Math1000
    Aug 1 at 8:51










  • @Math1000 $ N_n $ is a sequence of integer valued random variables (measurable functions). A discrete time stochastic process.
    – Psylex
    Aug 6 at 9:47















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Consider a random sequence $ (N_n)_n geq 1 subset mathbbN^* $ such that $ mathbbP( lim N_n = infty ) = 1 $



Let $ (X_n)_n geq 1 $ be an iid sequence with $ m = mathbbE[X_1] $ and $ sigma^2 = mathbbV[X_1] $



We define $ Z_n = sqrtfracnsigma^2( overlineX_n - m ) $



$ bullet $ Show that $ ( overlineX_N_n)_n geq 1 rightarrow m : $ almost surely



$ bullet $ Show that $(Z_N_n) $ converges in distribution towards $ mathcalN(0,1) $




How could I justify neatly this exercise?



I've tried writing a few things ,



Let $ A = lim N_n = infty $ , $ forall omega in A $, we get : $ frac1N_n( omega) sum_k=1^N_n( omega) X_k (omega) rightarrow m $ by LLN ?



With the CLT we get $ Z_n rightarrow mathcalN(0,1) $ and by convergence of measures it follows that



For $ epsilon > 0 $



So $ exists K_1 geq 1, forall n geq K_1, | mathbbE[f(Z_n)] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon/2 : : : $ with f continuous and bounded



And as $ N_n rightarrow infty $ in probability this means that



$ exists K_2 > 0 geq 1, forall n geq K_2, mathbbP(N_n < K_1) leq epsilon/ f(2M) $



So, $ forall n leq K_2, $ $ | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1_ (N_n < K_1) cup ( (N_n geq K_1) ] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon /2 + | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1( N_n < K_1) ] $ ..... ?



What would be a correct way of writing all this? Thanks in advance







share|cite|improve this question





















  • What do you mean exactly by a "random sequence $N_n$"?
    – Math1000
    Aug 1 at 8:51










  • @Math1000 $ N_n $ is a sequence of integer valued random variables (measurable functions). A discrete time stochastic process.
    – Psylex
    Aug 6 at 9:47













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Consider a random sequence $ (N_n)_n geq 1 subset mathbbN^* $ such that $ mathbbP( lim N_n = infty ) = 1 $



Let $ (X_n)_n geq 1 $ be an iid sequence with $ m = mathbbE[X_1] $ and $ sigma^2 = mathbbV[X_1] $



We define $ Z_n = sqrtfracnsigma^2( overlineX_n - m ) $



$ bullet $ Show that $ ( overlineX_N_n)_n geq 1 rightarrow m : $ almost surely



$ bullet $ Show that $(Z_N_n) $ converges in distribution towards $ mathcalN(0,1) $




How could I justify neatly this exercise?



I've tried writing a few things ,



Let $ A = lim N_n = infty $ , $ forall omega in A $, we get : $ frac1N_n( omega) sum_k=1^N_n( omega) X_k (omega) rightarrow m $ by LLN ?



With the CLT we get $ Z_n rightarrow mathcalN(0,1) $ and by convergence of measures it follows that



For $ epsilon > 0 $



So $ exists K_1 geq 1, forall n geq K_1, | mathbbE[f(Z_n)] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon/2 : : : $ with f continuous and bounded



And as $ N_n rightarrow infty $ in probability this means that



$ exists K_2 > 0 geq 1, forall n geq K_2, mathbbP(N_n < K_1) leq epsilon/ f(2M) $



So, $ forall n leq K_2, $ $ | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1_ (N_n < K_1) cup ( (N_n geq K_1) ] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon /2 + | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1( N_n < K_1) ] $ ..... ?



What would be a correct way of writing all this? Thanks in advance







share|cite|improve this question













Consider a random sequence $ (N_n)_n geq 1 subset mathbbN^* $ such that $ mathbbP( lim N_n = infty ) = 1 $



Let $ (X_n)_n geq 1 $ be an iid sequence with $ m = mathbbE[X_1] $ and $ sigma^2 = mathbbV[X_1] $



We define $ Z_n = sqrtfracnsigma^2( overlineX_n - m ) $



$ bullet $ Show that $ ( overlineX_N_n)_n geq 1 rightarrow m : $ almost surely



$ bullet $ Show that $(Z_N_n) $ converges in distribution towards $ mathcalN(0,1) $




How could I justify neatly this exercise?



I've tried writing a few things ,



Let $ A = lim N_n = infty $ , $ forall omega in A $, we get : $ frac1N_n( omega) sum_k=1^N_n( omega) X_k (omega) rightarrow m $ by LLN ?



With the CLT we get $ Z_n rightarrow mathcalN(0,1) $ and by convergence of measures it follows that



For $ epsilon > 0 $



So $ exists K_1 geq 1, forall n geq K_1, | mathbbE[f(Z_n)] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon/2 : : : $ with f continuous and bounded



And as $ N_n rightarrow infty $ in probability this means that



$ exists K_2 > 0 geq 1, forall n geq K_2, mathbbP(N_n < K_1) leq epsilon/ f(2M) $



So, $ forall n leq K_2, $ $ | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1_ (N_n < K_1) cup ( (N_n geq K_1) ] - mathbbE[f(Y)] | leq epsilon /2 + | mathbbE[f(Z_N_n) mathbb1( N_n < K_1) ] $ ..... ?



What would be a correct way of writing all this? Thanks in advance









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 30 at 6:55
























asked Jul 29 at 20:39









Psylex

568




568











  • What do you mean exactly by a "random sequence $N_n$"?
    – Math1000
    Aug 1 at 8:51










  • @Math1000 $ N_n $ is a sequence of integer valued random variables (measurable functions). A discrete time stochastic process.
    – Psylex
    Aug 6 at 9:47

















  • What do you mean exactly by a "random sequence $N_n$"?
    – Math1000
    Aug 1 at 8:51










  • @Math1000 $ N_n $ is a sequence of integer valued random variables (measurable functions). A discrete time stochastic process.
    – Psylex
    Aug 6 at 9:47
















What do you mean exactly by a "random sequence $N_n$"?
– Math1000
Aug 1 at 8:51




What do you mean exactly by a "random sequence $N_n$"?
– Math1000
Aug 1 at 8:51












@Math1000 $ N_n $ is a sequence of integer valued random variables (measurable functions). A discrete time stochastic process.
– Psylex
Aug 6 at 9:47





@Math1000 $ N_n $ is a sequence of integer valued random variables (measurable functions). A discrete time stochastic process.
– Psylex
Aug 6 at 9:47
















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