Nonwandering set (equivalent definitions)

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Katok, Hasselblatt: "Modern theory of dynamical systems", p. 129:





Definition 3.3.3. A point $xin X$ is nonwandering with respect to the map $fcolon Xto X$ if for any open set $Uni x$ there is an $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$. The set of all nonwandering points of $f$ is denoted by $NW(f)$.



Equivalently, one may assume that $N$ is arbitrary big. For, if for every $U$, $f^N(U)cap U=emptyset$ for $Ngeq N_0$, then $x$ is not periodic. Hence one can find a neighborhood $Vni x$ such that $f^i(V)cap V=emptyset$ for $i=0,1,ldots,N_0$, and $x$ cannot be nonwandering.





I do not understand this proof of the equivalence.



Let $N_0>0$ be arbitrary.



We suppose that $x$ is nonwandering, i.e. for any open set $Uni x$ there exists some $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$.



I guess, we then suppose there exists some open set $Vni x$ such that for all $Ngeq N_0$, we have $f^N(V)cap V=emptyset$. But I dont see how to get the contradiction to $x$ is nonwandering.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ for all open sets $U$ and all $N = N_0, N_0+1, N_0+2, dots$. So it is enough to find a nbhd $V$ such that $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$ for finitely many $i=1,2,dots,N_0-1$. And such a $V$ can be found because $f$ is continuous and $f^i(x)$ are distinct. Can you continue now?
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 11:23











  • For what do we need the continuity? To make sure that preimages of open sets are open?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 16:53










  • I would say that the whole "spirit" of the concept of nonwandering point is topological in nature: a nonwandering point need not return to its original position, but (some) nearby points must.
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 19:12















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Katok, Hasselblatt: "Modern theory of dynamical systems", p. 129:





Definition 3.3.3. A point $xin X$ is nonwandering with respect to the map $fcolon Xto X$ if for any open set $Uni x$ there is an $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$. The set of all nonwandering points of $f$ is denoted by $NW(f)$.



Equivalently, one may assume that $N$ is arbitrary big. For, if for every $U$, $f^N(U)cap U=emptyset$ for $Ngeq N_0$, then $x$ is not periodic. Hence one can find a neighborhood $Vni x$ such that $f^i(V)cap V=emptyset$ for $i=0,1,ldots,N_0$, and $x$ cannot be nonwandering.





I do not understand this proof of the equivalence.



Let $N_0>0$ be arbitrary.



We suppose that $x$ is nonwandering, i.e. for any open set $Uni x$ there exists some $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$.



I guess, we then suppose there exists some open set $Vni x$ such that for all $Ngeq N_0$, we have $f^N(V)cap V=emptyset$. But I dont see how to get the contradiction to $x$ is nonwandering.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ for all open sets $U$ and all $N = N_0, N_0+1, N_0+2, dots$. So it is enough to find a nbhd $V$ such that $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$ for finitely many $i=1,2,dots,N_0-1$. And such a $V$ can be found because $f$ is continuous and $f^i(x)$ are distinct. Can you continue now?
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 11:23











  • For what do we need the continuity? To make sure that preimages of open sets are open?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 16:53










  • I would say that the whole "spirit" of the concept of nonwandering point is topological in nature: a nonwandering point need not return to its original position, but (some) nearby points must.
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 19:12













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Katok, Hasselblatt: "Modern theory of dynamical systems", p. 129:





Definition 3.3.3. A point $xin X$ is nonwandering with respect to the map $fcolon Xto X$ if for any open set $Uni x$ there is an $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$. The set of all nonwandering points of $f$ is denoted by $NW(f)$.



Equivalently, one may assume that $N$ is arbitrary big. For, if for every $U$, $f^N(U)cap U=emptyset$ for $Ngeq N_0$, then $x$ is not periodic. Hence one can find a neighborhood $Vni x$ such that $f^i(V)cap V=emptyset$ for $i=0,1,ldots,N_0$, and $x$ cannot be nonwandering.





I do not understand this proof of the equivalence.



Let $N_0>0$ be arbitrary.



We suppose that $x$ is nonwandering, i.e. for any open set $Uni x$ there exists some $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$.



I guess, we then suppose there exists some open set $Vni x$ such that for all $Ngeq N_0$, we have $f^N(V)cap V=emptyset$. But I dont see how to get the contradiction to $x$ is nonwandering.







share|cite|improve this question













Katok, Hasselblatt: "Modern theory of dynamical systems", p. 129:





Definition 3.3.3. A point $xin X$ is nonwandering with respect to the map $fcolon Xto X$ if for any open set $Uni x$ there is an $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$. The set of all nonwandering points of $f$ is denoted by $NW(f)$.



Equivalently, one may assume that $N$ is arbitrary big. For, if for every $U$, $f^N(U)cap U=emptyset$ for $Ngeq N_0$, then $x$ is not periodic. Hence one can find a neighborhood $Vni x$ such that $f^i(V)cap V=emptyset$ for $i=0,1,ldots,N_0$, and $x$ cannot be nonwandering.





I do not understand this proof of the equivalence.



Let $N_0>0$ be arbitrary.



We suppose that $x$ is nonwandering, i.e. for any open set $Uni x$ there exists some $N>0$ such that $f^N(U)cap Uneqemptyset$.



I guess, we then suppose there exists some open set $Vni x$ such that for all $Ngeq N_0$, we have $f^N(V)cap V=emptyset$. But I dont see how to get the contradiction to $x$ is nonwandering.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 16 at 10:47
























asked Jul 16 at 9:32









Rhjg

260214




260214







  • 1




    $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ for all open sets $U$ and all $N = N_0, N_0+1, N_0+2, dots$. So it is enough to find a nbhd $V$ such that $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$ for finitely many $i=1,2,dots,N_0-1$. And such a $V$ can be found because $f$ is continuous and $f^i(x)$ are distinct. Can you continue now?
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 11:23











  • For what do we need the continuity? To make sure that preimages of open sets are open?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 16:53










  • I would say that the whole "spirit" of the concept of nonwandering point is topological in nature: a nonwandering point need not return to its original position, but (some) nearby points must.
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 19:12













  • 1




    $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ for all open sets $U$ and all $N = N_0, N_0+1, N_0+2, dots$. So it is enough to find a nbhd $V$ such that $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$ for finitely many $i=1,2,dots,N_0-1$. And such a $V$ can be found because $f$ is continuous and $f^i(x)$ are distinct. Can you continue now?
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 11:23











  • For what do we need the continuity? To make sure that preimages of open sets are open?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 16:53










  • I would say that the whole "spirit" of the concept of nonwandering point is topological in nature: a nonwandering point need not return to its original position, but (some) nearby points must.
    – user539887
    Jul 16 at 19:12








1




1




$f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ for all open sets $U$ and all $N = N_0, N_0+1, N_0+2, dots$. So it is enough to find a nbhd $V$ such that $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$ for finitely many $i=1,2,dots,N_0-1$. And such a $V$ can be found because $f$ is continuous and $f^i(x)$ are distinct. Can you continue now?
– user539887
Jul 16 at 11:23





$f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ for all open sets $U$ and all $N = N_0, N_0+1, N_0+2, dots$. So it is enough to find a nbhd $V$ such that $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$ for finitely many $i=1,2,dots,N_0-1$. And such a $V$ can be found because $f$ is continuous and $f^i(x)$ are distinct. Can you continue now?
– user539887
Jul 16 at 11:23













For what do we need the continuity? To make sure that preimages of open sets are open?
– Rhjg
Jul 16 at 16:53




For what do we need the continuity? To make sure that preimages of open sets are open?
– Rhjg
Jul 16 at 16:53












I would say that the whole "spirit" of the concept of nonwandering point is topological in nature: a nonwandering point need not return to its original position, but (some) nearby points must.
– user539887
Jul 16 at 19:12





I would say that the whole "spirit" of the concept of nonwandering point is topological in nature: a nonwandering point need not return to its original position, but (some) nearby points must.
– user539887
Jul 16 at 19:12











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Laying out the proof in a little more detail, suppose $x$ is nonwandering and that there exists some $N_0$ so that $N > N_0$ implies $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$. This implies $x$ is not periodic. Therefore, we can pick $V subseteq U$ about $x$ which is small enough so that all of the first $N_0$ iterates $f^i(V)$ do not intersect $V$ (this seems worth verifying instead of taking for granted, but it is necessary for the proof). Now we know that $f^N(V) subseteq f^N(U)$, so $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ implies $f^N(V) cap V = emptyset$. We already know that for $0 < i leq N_0$ we have $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$, so putting this together demonstrates that for all $n > 0$ we have $f^n(V) cap V = emptyset$, contradicting our claim that $x$ is nonwandering.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 11:49










  • It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
    – Cory Griffith
    Jul 16 at 21:59










Your Answer




StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
);
);
, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: false,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);








 

draft saved


draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2853274%2fnonwandering-set-equivalent-definitions%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest






























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Laying out the proof in a little more detail, suppose $x$ is nonwandering and that there exists some $N_0$ so that $N > N_0$ implies $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$. This implies $x$ is not periodic. Therefore, we can pick $V subseteq U$ about $x$ which is small enough so that all of the first $N_0$ iterates $f^i(V)$ do not intersect $V$ (this seems worth verifying instead of taking for granted, but it is necessary for the proof). Now we know that $f^N(V) subseteq f^N(U)$, so $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ implies $f^N(V) cap V = emptyset$. We already know that for $0 < i leq N_0$ we have $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$, so putting this together demonstrates that for all $n > 0$ we have $f^n(V) cap V = emptyset$, contradicting our claim that $x$ is nonwandering.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 11:49










  • It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
    – Cory Griffith
    Jul 16 at 21:59














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Laying out the proof in a little more detail, suppose $x$ is nonwandering and that there exists some $N_0$ so that $N > N_0$ implies $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$. This implies $x$ is not periodic. Therefore, we can pick $V subseteq U$ about $x$ which is small enough so that all of the first $N_0$ iterates $f^i(V)$ do not intersect $V$ (this seems worth verifying instead of taking for granted, but it is necessary for the proof). Now we know that $f^N(V) subseteq f^N(U)$, so $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ implies $f^N(V) cap V = emptyset$. We already know that for $0 < i leq N_0$ we have $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$, so putting this together demonstrates that for all $n > 0$ we have $f^n(V) cap V = emptyset$, contradicting our claim that $x$ is nonwandering.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 11:49










  • It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
    – Cory Griffith
    Jul 16 at 21:59












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Laying out the proof in a little more detail, suppose $x$ is nonwandering and that there exists some $N_0$ so that $N > N_0$ implies $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$. This implies $x$ is not periodic. Therefore, we can pick $V subseteq U$ about $x$ which is small enough so that all of the first $N_0$ iterates $f^i(V)$ do not intersect $V$ (this seems worth verifying instead of taking for granted, but it is necessary for the proof). Now we know that $f^N(V) subseteq f^N(U)$, so $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ implies $f^N(V) cap V = emptyset$. We already know that for $0 < i leq N_0$ we have $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$, so putting this together demonstrates that for all $n > 0$ we have $f^n(V) cap V = emptyset$, contradicting our claim that $x$ is nonwandering.






share|cite|improve this answer













Laying out the proof in a little more detail, suppose $x$ is nonwandering and that there exists some $N_0$ so that $N > N_0$ implies $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$. This implies $x$ is not periodic. Therefore, we can pick $V subseteq U$ about $x$ which is small enough so that all of the first $N_0$ iterates $f^i(V)$ do not intersect $V$ (this seems worth verifying instead of taking for granted, but it is necessary for the proof). Now we know that $f^N(V) subseteq f^N(U)$, so $f^N(U) cap U = emptyset$ implies $f^N(V) cap V = emptyset$. We already know that for $0 < i leq N_0$ we have $f^i(V) cap V = emptyset$, so putting this together demonstrates that for all $n > 0$ we have $f^n(V) cap V = emptyset$, contradicting our claim that $x$ is nonwandering.







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Jul 16 at 11:25









Cory Griffith

729411




729411











  • By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 11:49










  • It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
    – Cory Griffith
    Jul 16 at 21:59
















  • By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
    – Rhjg
    Jul 16 at 11:49










  • It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
    – Cory Griffith
    Jul 16 at 21:59















By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
– Rhjg
Jul 16 at 11:49




By the way: The fact that, in the definition 3.3.3 we can choose $N$ arbitrary large, i.e. reformulate the definition as "[...] for any $Uni x$ there exists some $Ngeq N_0$ such that ..." means that for any neighborhood of $x$, the function "returns infintely often" to this neighborhood. Right?
– Rhjg
Jul 16 at 11:49












It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
– Cory Griffith
Jul 16 at 21:59




It might be more correct to say "nearly returns infinitely often" or something along those lines, but that's the right spirit. I'm quibbling because the point $x$ itself need never return to $U$. For example, consider the plane and a continuous open function which sends $0$ to some point on the unit circle, and fixes the unit circle. Take $U$ to be the unit ball about $0$. Then $0$ is nonwandering, and $f^i(0) not in U$ for every $i > 0$.
– Cory Griffith
Jul 16 at 21:59












 

draft saved


draft discarded


























 


draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2853274%2fnonwandering-set-equivalent-definitions%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest













































































Comments

Popular posts from this blog

What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?