Showing a function is square integrable

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I'm trying to show that the dirac delta function is in $H^frac-n2- epsilon(mathbbR^n) forall epsilon > 0.$ Where $H^s(mathbbR^n)$ denotes Sobolev space of order $s$ on $mathbbR^n$



I have that since $hatdelta = 1 Rightarrow <xi>^shatdelta = <xi>^s$ trivially.



So this amounts to needing to show that $int_mathbbR^n |(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2d xi in L^2(mathbbR^n, s= -fracn2 - epsilon.$



But now I'm stuck. I know I need to show that this integral is finite.



Any help appreciated.



Thanks.







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  • 5




    Polar coordinates...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 17:51










  • @DavidC.Ullrich I had an attempt not sure if it's right. Rewriting the integral as $ int_mathbbR^n|(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^n|(r^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^nr^2sdr $ but then I'm not sure how to evaluate this (if this is even correct).
    – VBACODER
    Jul 15 at 19:17











  • @VBACODER: The integral with respect to $r$ should be on $(0,infty)$, not $BbbR^d$.
    – PhoemueX
    Jul 15 at 20:47











  • Find a book on real analysis. If $f(x)=g(|x|)$ then $int_Bbb R^nf(x),dx=c_nint_0^infty g(r) r^n-1,dr$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 22:35










  • @DavidC.Ullrich any recommendations for books that will have this in? I have the Folland book. Using the result in your comment, how would one proceed to get the result? If i integrate by parts i obtain $g(r) fracr^nn|_0^infty$ $ - frac1n int_0^infty r^ng'(r)dr$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 19:57















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm trying to show that the dirac delta function is in $H^frac-n2- epsilon(mathbbR^n) forall epsilon > 0.$ Where $H^s(mathbbR^n)$ denotes Sobolev space of order $s$ on $mathbbR^n$



I have that since $hatdelta = 1 Rightarrow <xi>^shatdelta = <xi>^s$ trivially.



So this amounts to needing to show that $int_mathbbR^n |(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2d xi in L^2(mathbbR^n, s= -fracn2 - epsilon.$



But now I'm stuck. I know I need to show that this integral is finite.



Any help appreciated.



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 5




    Polar coordinates...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 17:51










  • @DavidC.Ullrich I had an attempt not sure if it's right. Rewriting the integral as $ int_mathbbR^n|(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^n|(r^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^nr^2sdr $ but then I'm not sure how to evaluate this (if this is even correct).
    – VBACODER
    Jul 15 at 19:17











  • @VBACODER: The integral with respect to $r$ should be on $(0,infty)$, not $BbbR^d$.
    – PhoemueX
    Jul 15 at 20:47











  • Find a book on real analysis. If $f(x)=g(|x|)$ then $int_Bbb R^nf(x),dx=c_nint_0^infty g(r) r^n-1,dr$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 22:35










  • @DavidC.Ullrich any recommendations for books that will have this in? I have the Folland book. Using the result in your comment, how would one proceed to get the result? If i integrate by parts i obtain $g(r) fracr^nn|_0^infty$ $ - frac1n int_0^infty r^ng'(r)dr$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 19:57













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm trying to show that the dirac delta function is in $H^frac-n2- epsilon(mathbbR^n) forall epsilon > 0.$ Where $H^s(mathbbR^n)$ denotes Sobolev space of order $s$ on $mathbbR^n$



I have that since $hatdelta = 1 Rightarrow <xi>^shatdelta = <xi>^s$ trivially.



So this amounts to needing to show that $int_mathbbR^n |(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2d xi in L^2(mathbbR^n, s= -fracn2 - epsilon.$



But now I'm stuck. I know I need to show that this integral is finite.



Any help appreciated.



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question













I'm trying to show that the dirac delta function is in $H^frac-n2- epsilon(mathbbR^n) forall epsilon > 0.$ Where $H^s(mathbbR^n)$ denotes Sobolev space of order $s$ on $mathbbR^n$



I have that since $hatdelta = 1 Rightarrow <xi>^shatdelta = <xi>^s$ trivially.



So this amounts to needing to show that $int_mathbbR^n |(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2d xi in L^2(mathbbR^n, s= -fracn2 - epsilon.$



But now I'm stuck. I know I need to show that this integral is finite.



Any help appreciated.



Thanks.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 15 at 17:53









David C. Ullrich

54.3k33583




54.3k33583









asked Jul 15 at 17:47









VBACODER

748




748







  • 5




    Polar coordinates...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 17:51










  • @DavidC.Ullrich I had an attempt not sure if it's right. Rewriting the integral as $ int_mathbbR^n|(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^n|(r^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^nr^2sdr $ but then I'm not sure how to evaluate this (if this is even correct).
    – VBACODER
    Jul 15 at 19:17











  • @VBACODER: The integral with respect to $r$ should be on $(0,infty)$, not $BbbR^d$.
    – PhoemueX
    Jul 15 at 20:47











  • Find a book on real analysis. If $f(x)=g(|x|)$ then $int_Bbb R^nf(x),dx=c_nint_0^infty g(r) r^n-1,dr$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 22:35










  • @DavidC.Ullrich any recommendations for books that will have this in? I have the Folland book. Using the result in your comment, how would one proceed to get the result? If i integrate by parts i obtain $g(r) fracr^nn|_0^infty$ $ - frac1n int_0^infty r^ng'(r)dr$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 19:57













  • 5




    Polar coordinates...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 17:51










  • @DavidC.Ullrich I had an attempt not sure if it's right. Rewriting the integral as $ int_mathbbR^n|(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^n|(r^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^nr^2sdr $ but then I'm not sure how to evaluate this (if this is even correct).
    – VBACODER
    Jul 15 at 19:17











  • @VBACODER: The integral with respect to $r$ should be on $(0,infty)$, not $BbbR^d$.
    – PhoemueX
    Jul 15 at 20:47











  • Find a book on real analysis. If $f(x)=g(|x|)$ then $int_Bbb R^nf(x),dx=c_nint_0^infty g(r) r^n-1,dr$.
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jul 15 at 22:35










  • @DavidC.Ullrich any recommendations for books that will have this in? I have the Folland book. Using the result in your comment, how would one proceed to get the result? If i integrate by parts i obtain $g(r) fracr^nn|_0^infty$ $ - frac1n int_0^infty r^ng'(r)dr$
    – VBACODER
    Jul 16 at 19:57








5




5




Polar coordinates...
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 15 at 17:51




Polar coordinates...
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 15 at 17:51












@DavidC.Ullrich I had an attempt not sure if it's right. Rewriting the integral as $ int_mathbbR^n|(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^n|(r^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^nr^2sdr $ but then I'm not sure how to evaluate this (if this is even correct).
– VBACODER
Jul 15 at 19:17





@DavidC.Ullrich I had an attempt not sure if it's right. Rewriting the integral as $ int_mathbbR^n|(1+|xi|^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^n|(r^2)^fracs2|^2 = int_mathbbR^nr^2sdr $ but then I'm not sure how to evaluate this (if this is even correct).
– VBACODER
Jul 15 at 19:17













@VBACODER: The integral with respect to $r$ should be on $(0,infty)$, not $BbbR^d$.
– PhoemueX
Jul 15 at 20:47





@VBACODER: The integral with respect to $r$ should be on $(0,infty)$, not $BbbR^d$.
– PhoemueX
Jul 15 at 20:47













Find a book on real analysis. If $f(x)=g(|x|)$ then $int_Bbb R^nf(x),dx=c_nint_0^infty g(r) r^n-1,dr$.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 15 at 22:35




Find a book on real analysis. If $f(x)=g(|x|)$ then $int_Bbb R^nf(x),dx=c_nint_0^infty g(r) r^n-1,dr$.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 15 at 22:35












@DavidC.Ullrich any recommendations for books that will have this in? I have the Folland book. Using the result in your comment, how would one proceed to get the result? If i integrate by parts i obtain $g(r) fracr^nn|_0^infty$ $ - frac1n int_0^infty r^ng'(r)dr$
– VBACODER
Jul 16 at 19:57





@DavidC.Ullrich any recommendations for books that will have this in? I have the Folland book. Using the result in your comment, how would one proceed to get the result? If i integrate by parts i obtain $g(r) fracr^nn|_0^infty$ $ - frac1n int_0^infty r^ng'(r)dr$
– VBACODER
Jul 16 at 19:57
















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