Any set of positive Lebesgue measure in k-dimensional space contains all finite sets in the space to within a similarity transformation

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In the third page of My Scottish Book 'Problems', Paul Erdös writes that




There is a very simple theorem of Steinhaus which says that the difference set of a set of positive measure (say on the line) contains an interval. ... It follows instantly from the Lebesgue density theorem, and therefore by this method one obtains the following theorem: Any set of positive measure on the line, or, more generally, in k-dimensional space, contains all finite sets in the space to within a similarity transformation. The proof is almost immediate because by the Lebesgue density theorem there is an interval or a sphere in which the density is as close to 1 as one wishes, and therefore it follows that set will contain a set which is similar to any finite set.




I just cannot follow the reasoning here-- why does that theorem follows from Lebesgue density theorem?



Any hint or reference will be appreciated!







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    In the third page of My Scottish Book 'Problems', Paul Erdös writes that




    There is a very simple theorem of Steinhaus which says that the difference set of a set of positive measure (say on the line) contains an interval. ... It follows instantly from the Lebesgue density theorem, and therefore by this method one obtains the following theorem: Any set of positive measure on the line, or, more generally, in k-dimensional space, contains all finite sets in the space to within a similarity transformation. The proof is almost immediate because by the Lebesgue density theorem there is an interval or a sphere in which the density is as close to 1 as one wishes, and therefore it follows that set will contain a set which is similar to any finite set.




    I just cannot follow the reasoning here-- why does that theorem follows from Lebesgue density theorem?



    Any hint or reference will be appreciated!







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      In the third page of My Scottish Book 'Problems', Paul Erdös writes that




      There is a very simple theorem of Steinhaus which says that the difference set of a set of positive measure (say on the line) contains an interval. ... It follows instantly from the Lebesgue density theorem, and therefore by this method one obtains the following theorem: Any set of positive measure on the line, or, more generally, in k-dimensional space, contains all finite sets in the space to within a similarity transformation. The proof is almost immediate because by the Lebesgue density theorem there is an interval or a sphere in which the density is as close to 1 as one wishes, and therefore it follows that set will contain a set which is similar to any finite set.




      I just cannot follow the reasoning here-- why does that theorem follows from Lebesgue density theorem?



      Any hint or reference will be appreciated!







      share|cite|improve this question











      In the third page of My Scottish Book 'Problems', Paul Erdös writes that




      There is a very simple theorem of Steinhaus which says that the difference set of a set of positive measure (say on the line) contains an interval. ... It follows instantly from the Lebesgue density theorem, and therefore by this method one obtains the following theorem: Any set of positive measure on the line, or, more generally, in k-dimensional space, contains all finite sets in the space to within a similarity transformation. The proof is almost immediate because by the Lebesgue density theorem there is an interval or a sphere in which the density is as close to 1 as one wishes, and therefore it follows that set will contain a set which is similar to any finite set.




      I just cannot follow the reasoning here-- why does that theorem follows from Lebesgue density theorem?



      Any hint or reference will be appreciated!









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 24 at 1:42









      user392347

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          Let $B$ be a set of positive measure, and by translation and scaling we can assume that $0in B$ is a point of density $1$ in $B$, that $x_1=0<x_2<...<x_n=1$ is the finite set, and we can also assume that $1in B$.
          Scaling furter we can assume that $Bcap [0,1]$ has measure $>1-epsilon$, that $Bcap[0,x_n-1]$ has measure $>x_n-1-epsilon$, and so on, $Bcap[0,x_2]$ has measure $> x_2-epsilon$.



          Assume that for all $rin[0,1]$, there is an $i_rin1,2,...,n$ such that $rx_inotin B$.



          The points of the form $rx_nnotin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$. The set of points of the form $rx_n-1notin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$, ... and likewise for all the others. Therefore, the set of values of $r$ for which at least one $rx_inotin B$ can at most have measure $nepsilon$. Choosing $epsilon << 1/n$, we get that there must be some $rin[0,1]$ such that all $rx_1,...,rx_nin B$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Perfect! Thank you!
            – user392347
            Jul 24 at 2:36










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          1 Answer
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          Let $B$ be a set of positive measure, and by translation and scaling we can assume that $0in B$ is a point of density $1$ in $B$, that $x_1=0<x_2<...<x_n=1$ is the finite set, and we can also assume that $1in B$.
          Scaling furter we can assume that $Bcap [0,1]$ has measure $>1-epsilon$, that $Bcap[0,x_n-1]$ has measure $>x_n-1-epsilon$, and so on, $Bcap[0,x_2]$ has measure $> x_2-epsilon$.



          Assume that for all $rin[0,1]$, there is an $i_rin1,2,...,n$ such that $rx_inotin B$.



          The points of the form $rx_nnotin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$. The set of points of the form $rx_n-1notin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$, ... and likewise for all the others. Therefore, the set of values of $r$ for which at least one $rx_inotin B$ can at most have measure $nepsilon$. Choosing $epsilon << 1/n$, we get that there must be some $rin[0,1]$ such that all $rx_1,...,rx_nin B$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Perfect! Thank you!
            – user392347
            Jul 24 at 2:36














          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $B$ be a set of positive measure, and by translation and scaling we can assume that $0in B$ is a point of density $1$ in $B$, that $x_1=0<x_2<...<x_n=1$ is the finite set, and we can also assume that $1in B$.
          Scaling furter we can assume that $Bcap [0,1]$ has measure $>1-epsilon$, that $Bcap[0,x_n-1]$ has measure $>x_n-1-epsilon$, and so on, $Bcap[0,x_2]$ has measure $> x_2-epsilon$.



          Assume that for all $rin[0,1]$, there is an $i_rin1,2,...,n$ such that $rx_inotin B$.



          The points of the form $rx_nnotin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$. The set of points of the form $rx_n-1notin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$, ... and likewise for all the others. Therefore, the set of values of $r$ for which at least one $rx_inotin B$ can at most have measure $nepsilon$. Choosing $epsilon << 1/n$, we get that there must be some $rin[0,1]$ such that all $rx_1,...,rx_nin B$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Perfect! Thank you!
            – user392347
            Jul 24 at 2:36












          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $B$ be a set of positive measure, and by translation and scaling we can assume that $0in B$ is a point of density $1$ in $B$, that $x_1=0<x_2<...<x_n=1$ is the finite set, and we can also assume that $1in B$.
          Scaling furter we can assume that $Bcap [0,1]$ has measure $>1-epsilon$, that $Bcap[0,x_n-1]$ has measure $>x_n-1-epsilon$, and so on, $Bcap[0,x_2]$ has measure $> x_2-epsilon$.



          Assume that for all $rin[0,1]$, there is an $i_rin1,2,...,n$ such that $rx_inotin B$.



          The points of the form $rx_nnotin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$. The set of points of the form $rx_n-1notin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$, ... and likewise for all the others. Therefore, the set of values of $r$ for which at least one $rx_inotin B$ can at most have measure $nepsilon$. Choosing $epsilon << 1/n$, we get that there must be some $rin[0,1]$ such that all $rx_1,...,rx_nin B$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Let $B$ be a set of positive measure, and by translation and scaling we can assume that $0in B$ is a point of density $1$ in $B$, that $x_1=0<x_2<...<x_n=1$ is the finite set, and we can also assume that $1in B$.
          Scaling furter we can assume that $Bcap [0,1]$ has measure $>1-epsilon$, that $Bcap[0,x_n-1]$ has measure $>x_n-1-epsilon$, and so on, $Bcap[0,x_2]$ has measure $> x_2-epsilon$.



          Assume that for all $rin[0,1]$, there is an $i_rin1,2,...,n$ such that $rx_inotin B$.



          The points of the form $rx_nnotin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$. The set of points of the form $rx_n-1notin B$ can only be a set of measure $epsilon$, ... and likewise for all the others. Therefore, the set of values of $r$ for which at least one $rx_inotin B$ can at most have measure $nepsilon$. Choosing $epsilon << 1/n$, we get that there must be some $rin[0,1]$ such that all $rx_1,...,rx_nin B$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 24 at 2:30







          user578878


















          • Perfect! Thank you!
            – user392347
            Jul 24 at 2:36
















          • Perfect! Thank you!
            – user392347
            Jul 24 at 2:36















          Perfect! Thank you!
          – user392347
          Jul 24 at 2:36




          Perfect! Thank you!
          – user392347
          Jul 24 at 2:36












           

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