If $0<rneq 1$ and $U$ is convex then $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$

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Let $UsubseteqmathbbR^n$ be convex and closed. I'm trying to find conditions for which the following happens:




If $0<rneq 1$ then $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$.




It seems to me that this is not true if $0$ is in the frontier of $U$, for instance $U=(0,y):yinmathbbR$ or $U=(x,y):yge $. In fact, in both examples $U=rU$.



So, let us suppose that $0intextInt (U)$. Does this suffice to prove that $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$? I couldn't find counterexamples so far.



What do you think?



Thank you.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • By "frontier of $U$" do you mean the boundary $$partial U equiv overline Ucap overline mathbb R^nsetminus U mathrm ?$$
    – Math1000
    Jul 23 at 22:07











  • @Math1000 yes I do
    – Tanius
    Jul 23 at 22:44














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $UsubseteqmathbbR^n$ be convex and closed. I'm trying to find conditions for which the following happens:




If $0<rneq 1$ then $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$.




It seems to me that this is not true if $0$ is in the frontier of $U$, for instance $U=(0,y):yinmathbbR$ or $U=(x,y):yge $. In fact, in both examples $U=rU$.



So, let us suppose that $0intextInt (U)$. Does this suffice to prove that $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$? I couldn't find counterexamples so far.



What do you think?



Thank you.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • By "frontier of $U$" do you mean the boundary $$partial U equiv overline Ucap overline mathbb R^nsetminus U mathrm ?$$
    – Math1000
    Jul 23 at 22:07











  • @Math1000 yes I do
    – Tanius
    Jul 23 at 22:44












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $UsubseteqmathbbR^n$ be convex and closed. I'm trying to find conditions for which the following happens:




If $0<rneq 1$ then $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$.




It seems to me that this is not true if $0$ is in the frontier of $U$, for instance $U=(0,y):yinmathbbR$ or $U=(x,y):yge $. In fact, in both examples $U=rU$.



So, let us suppose that $0intextInt (U)$. Does this suffice to prove that $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$? I couldn't find counterexamples so far.



What do you think?



Thank you.







share|cite|improve this question













Let $UsubseteqmathbbR^n$ be convex and closed. I'm trying to find conditions for which the following happens:




If $0<rneq 1$ then $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$.




It seems to me that this is not true if $0$ is in the frontier of $U$, for instance $U=(0,y):yinmathbbR$ or $U=(x,y):yge $. In fact, in both examples $U=rU$.



So, let us suppose that $0intextInt (U)$. Does this suffice to prove that $partial Ucappartial (rU)=emptyset$? I couldn't find counterexamples so far.



What do you think?



Thank you.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 23 at 20:22
























asked Jul 23 at 20:15









Tanius

46427




46427











  • By "frontier of $U$" do you mean the boundary $$partial U equiv overline Ucap overline mathbb R^nsetminus U mathrm ?$$
    – Math1000
    Jul 23 at 22:07











  • @Math1000 yes I do
    – Tanius
    Jul 23 at 22:44
















  • By "frontier of $U$" do you mean the boundary $$partial U equiv overline Ucap overline mathbb R^nsetminus U mathrm ?$$
    – Math1000
    Jul 23 at 22:07











  • @Math1000 yes I do
    – Tanius
    Jul 23 at 22:44















By "frontier of $U$" do you mean the boundary $$partial U equiv overline Ucap overline mathbb R^nsetminus U mathrm ?$$
– Math1000
Jul 23 at 22:07





By "frontier of $U$" do you mean the boundary $$partial U equiv overline Ucap overline mathbb R^nsetminus U mathrm ?$$
– Math1000
Jul 23 at 22:07













@Math1000 yes I do
– Tanius
Jul 23 at 22:44




@Math1000 yes I do
– Tanius
Jul 23 at 22:44










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










WLOG assume that $r>1$ (if $0<r<1$ then let $U' = rU$ and $r' = frac1r$, so $r'U' = U$ and $r'>1$). Suppose that the intersection is nonempty. Then, there is some $xin partial (rU)$ such that $xinpartial U$. Since $xin partial (rU)$, $y = r^-1xin partial U$. Thus, both $x$ and $y$ are on the boundary of $U$. We can draw a line segment from $0$ through $x$, which will also pass through $y$. If $0intextInt(U)$ there is an open neighborhood of $0$ also in $textInt(U)$ since the interior is always open. Then, take the collection of line segments (not including endpoints) from points in that neighborhood to $x$. The union $I$ of all these line segments is an open set containing $y$. Since $U$ is convex, $Isubset U$. Thus, there is an open subset of $U$ containing $y$, contradicting that $yinpartial U$. Thus, if $0intextInt(U)$ then the intersection must be empty.



If $0notintextInt(U)$ then $0 in partial U$ or $0 in textExt(U)$. If $0inpartial U$ then obviously $0 in partial (rU)$ so the intersection will be nonempty. If $0 in textExt(U)$, then let the shortest distance between $0$ and $U$ be $R$ and the largest distance be $M$. If $0<r<fracRM$, then $rUcap U = emptyset$. However, if $U$ is a line segment not through the origin, then $rUcap U = emptyset$ for all $rneq 1$.



Thus, $partial U cap partial (rU) = emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0intextInt(U)$ and $partial U cap partial (rU) neq emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0in partial U$.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:05










  • Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
    – AlexanderJ93
    Jul 24 at 1:12






  • 1




    Thank you, you helped me so much.
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:17

















up vote
0
down vote













I have an approach
that seems promising to me
but I can't push it through.
I'll enter it here
in the hope that
someone else can complete it.



$partial U$
can be described as
$(t, f(t))$
for
$0 le t lt 2pi$.



Suppose $(0, 0) in U$
$partial U$.



Suppose
$partial U cap partial(rU) ne emptyset$
where $0 < r < 1$.



Then there are
$a, b in [0, 2pi)$
such that
$(a, f(a)) = r(b, f(b))$
so that
$a = rb$ and
$f(a) = rf(b)$.



Consider the line from
$(b, f(b))$
to
$(rb, rf(b))$.
This has equation
$c(b, f(b))+(1-c)(rb, rf(b))$
for $c in mathbbR$
or



$c(b-rb, f(b)-rf(b))+(rb, rf(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+r(b, f(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+(a, f(a))
$.



Frustrating.
I can't see where
this leads to a contradiction.
What I would like to do
is show that this line
which passes through
two points on
$partial U$
also passes through
a third point,
which would be a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 0:02










  • Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
    – marty cohen
    Jul 24 at 2:39










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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










WLOG assume that $r>1$ (if $0<r<1$ then let $U' = rU$ and $r' = frac1r$, so $r'U' = U$ and $r'>1$). Suppose that the intersection is nonempty. Then, there is some $xin partial (rU)$ such that $xinpartial U$. Since $xin partial (rU)$, $y = r^-1xin partial U$. Thus, both $x$ and $y$ are on the boundary of $U$. We can draw a line segment from $0$ through $x$, which will also pass through $y$. If $0intextInt(U)$ there is an open neighborhood of $0$ also in $textInt(U)$ since the interior is always open. Then, take the collection of line segments (not including endpoints) from points in that neighborhood to $x$. The union $I$ of all these line segments is an open set containing $y$. Since $U$ is convex, $Isubset U$. Thus, there is an open subset of $U$ containing $y$, contradicting that $yinpartial U$. Thus, if $0intextInt(U)$ then the intersection must be empty.



If $0notintextInt(U)$ then $0 in partial U$ or $0 in textExt(U)$. If $0inpartial U$ then obviously $0 in partial (rU)$ so the intersection will be nonempty. If $0 in textExt(U)$, then let the shortest distance between $0$ and $U$ be $R$ and the largest distance be $M$. If $0<r<fracRM$, then $rUcap U = emptyset$. However, if $U$ is a line segment not through the origin, then $rUcap U = emptyset$ for all $rneq 1$.



Thus, $partial U cap partial (rU) = emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0intextInt(U)$ and $partial U cap partial (rU) neq emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0in partial U$.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:05










  • Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
    – AlexanderJ93
    Jul 24 at 1:12






  • 1




    Thank you, you helped me so much.
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:17














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










WLOG assume that $r>1$ (if $0<r<1$ then let $U' = rU$ and $r' = frac1r$, so $r'U' = U$ and $r'>1$). Suppose that the intersection is nonempty. Then, there is some $xin partial (rU)$ such that $xinpartial U$. Since $xin partial (rU)$, $y = r^-1xin partial U$. Thus, both $x$ and $y$ are on the boundary of $U$. We can draw a line segment from $0$ through $x$, which will also pass through $y$. If $0intextInt(U)$ there is an open neighborhood of $0$ also in $textInt(U)$ since the interior is always open. Then, take the collection of line segments (not including endpoints) from points in that neighborhood to $x$. The union $I$ of all these line segments is an open set containing $y$. Since $U$ is convex, $Isubset U$. Thus, there is an open subset of $U$ containing $y$, contradicting that $yinpartial U$. Thus, if $0intextInt(U)$ then the intersection must be empty.



If $0notintextInt(U)$ then $0 in partial U$ or $0 in textExt(U)$. If $0inpartial U$ then obviously $0 in partial (rU)$ so the intersection will be nonempty. If $0 in textExt(U)$, then let the shortest distance between $0$ and $U$ be $R$ and the largest distance be $M$. If $0<r<fracRM$, then $rUcap U = emptyset$. However, if $U$ is a line segment not through the origin, then $rUcap U = emptyset$ for all $rneq 1$.



Thus, $partial U cap partial (rU) = emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0intextInt(U)$ and $partial U cap partial (rU) neq emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0in partial U$.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:05










  • Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
    – AlexanderJ93
    Jul 24 at 1:12






  • 1




    Thank you, you helped me so much.
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:17












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






WLOG assume that $r>1$ (if $0<r<1$ then let $U' = rU$ and $r' = frac1r$, so $r'U' = U$ and $r'>1$). Suppose that the intersection is nonempty. Then, there is some $xin partial (rU)$ such that $xinpartial U$. Since $xin partial (rU)$, $y = r^-1xin partial U$. Thus, both $x$ and $y$ are on the boundary of $U$. We can draw a line segment from $0$ through $x$, which will also pass through $y$. If $0intextInt(U)$ there is an open neighborhood of $0$ also in $textInt(U)$ since the interior is always open. Then, take the collection of line segments (not including endpoints) from points in that neighborhood to $x$. The union $I$ of all these line segments is an open set containing $y$. Since $U$ is convex, $Isubset U$. Thus, there is an open subset of $U$ containing $y$, contradicting that $yinpartial U$. Thus, if $0intextInt(U)$ then the intersection must be empty.



If $0notintextInt(U)$ then $0 in partial U$ or $0 in textExt(U)$. If $0inpartial U$ then obviously $0 in partial (rU)$ so the intersection will be nonempty. If $0 in textExt(U)$, then let the shortest distance between $0$ and $U$ be $R$ and the largest distance be $M$. If $0<r<fracRM$, then $rUcap U = emptyset$. However, if $U$ is a line segment not through the origin, then $rUcap U = emptyset$ for all $rneq 1$.



Thus, $partial U cap partial (rU) = emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0intextInt(U)$ and $partial U cap partial (rU) neq emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0in partial U$.






share|cite|improve this answer















WLOG assume that $r>1$ (if $0<r<1$ then let $U' = rU$ and $r' = frac1r$, so $r'U' = U$ and $r'>1$). Suppose that the intersection is nonempty. Then, there is some $xin partial (rU)$ such that $xinpartial U$. Since $xin partial (rU)$, $y = r^-1xin partial U$. Thus, both $x$ and $y$ are on the boundary of $U$. We can draw a line segment from $0$ through $x$, which will also pass through $y$. If $0intextInt(U)$ there is an open neighborhood of $0$ also in $textInt(U)$ since the interior is always open. Then, take the collection of line segments (not including endpoints) from points in that neighborhood to $x$. The union $I$ of all these line segments is an open set containing $y$. Since $U$ is convex, $Isubset U$. Thus, there is an open subset of $U$ containing $y$, contradicting that $yinpartial U$. Thus, if $0intextInt(U)$ then the intersection must be empty.



If $0notintextInt(U)$ then $0 in partial U$ or $0 in textExt(U)$. If $0inpartial U$ then obviously $0 in partial (rU)$ so the intersection will be nonempty. If $0 in textExt(U)$, then let the shortest distance between $0$ and $U$ be $R$ and the largest distance be $M$. If $0<r<fracRM$, then $rUcap U = emptyset$. However, if $U$ is a line segment not through the origin, then $rUcap U = emptyset$ for all $rneq 1$.



Thus, $partial U cap partial (rU) = emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0intextInt(U)$ and $partial U cap partial (rU) neq emptyset$ for all $r$ if $0in partial U$.







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 24 at 1:10


























answered Jul 24 at 0:15









AlexanderJ93

4,067421




4,067421







  • 1




    First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:05










  • Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
    – AlexanderJ93
    Jul 24 at 1:12






  • 1




    Thank you, you helped me so much.
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:17












  • 1




    First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:05










  • Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
    – AlexanderJ93
    Jul 24 at 1:12






  • 1




    Thank you, you helped me so much.
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 1:17







1




1




First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
– Tanius
Jul 24 at 1:05




First of all, thank you very much. Are you sure you meant $I$ is the intersection of the line segments joining points of the neighborhood to $x$? Seems to me their intersection is just the point $x$. Didn't you want to mean the union? Also, $x$ is not an interior point so it's not open. Maybe you wanted to say $y$ is an interior point of $I$?
– Tanius
Jul 24 at 1:05












Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
– AlexanderJ93
Jul 24 at 1:12




Yes, I meant the union of line segments not including their endpoints, so that $xnotin I$. I've edited the answer to reflect this.
– AlexanderJ93
Jul 24 at 1:12




1




1




Thank you, you helped me so much.
– Tanius
Jul 24 at 1:17




Thank you, you helped me so much.
– Tanius
Jul 24 at 1:17










up vote
0
down vote













I have an approach
that seems promising to me
but I can't push it through.
I'll enter it here
in the hope that
someone else can complete it.



$partial U$
can be described as
$(t, f(t))$
for
$0 le t lt 2pi$.



Suppose $(0, 0) in U$
$partial U$.



Suppose
$partial U cap partial(rU) ne emptyset$
where $0 < r < 1$.



Then there are
$a, b in [0, 2pi)$
such that
$(a, f(a)) = r(b, f(b))$
so that
$a = rb$ and
$f(a) = rf(b)$.



Consider the line from
$(b, f(b))$
to
$(rb, rf(b))$.
This has equation
$c(b, f(b))+(1-c)(rb, rf(b))$
for $c in mathbbR$
or



$c(b-rb, f(b)-rf(b))+(rb, rf(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+r(b, f(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+(a, f(a))
$.



Frustrating.
I can't see where
this leads to a contradiction.
What I would like to do
is show that this line
which passes through
two points on
$partial U$
also passes through
a third point,
which would be a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 0:02










  • Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
    – marty cohen
    Jul 24 at 2:39














up vote
0
down vote













I have an approach
that seems promising to me
but I can't push it through.
I'll enter it here
in the hope that
someone else can complete it.



$partial U$
can be described as
$(t, f(t))$
for
$0 le t lt 2pi$.



Suppose $(0, 0) in U$
$partial U$.



Suppose
$partial U cap partial(rU) ne emptyset$
where $0 < r < 1$.



Then there are
$a, b in [0, 2pi)$
such that
$(a, f(a)) = r(b, f(b))$
so that
$a = rb$ and
$f(a) = rf(b)$.



Consider the line from
$(b, f(b))$
to
$(rb, rf(b))$.
This has equation
$c(b, f(b))+(1-c)(rb, rf(b))$
for $c in mathbbR$
or



$c(b-rb, f(b)-rf(b))+(rb, rf(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+r(b, f(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+(a, f(a))
$.



Frustrating.
I can't see where
this leads to a contradiction.
What I would like to do
is show that this line
which passes through
two points on
$partial U$
also passes through
a third point,
which would be a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 0:02










  • Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
    – marty cohen
    Jul 24 at 2:39












up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









I have an approach
that seems promising to me
but I can't push it through.
I'll enter it here
in the hope that
someone else can complete it.



$partial U$
can be described as
$(t, f(t))$
for
$0 le t lt 2pi$.



Suppose $(0, 0) in U$
$partial U$.



Suppose
$partial U cap partial(rU) ne emptyset$
where $0 < r < 1$.



Then there are
$a, b in [0, 2pi)$
such that
$(a, f(a)) = r(b, f(b))$
so that
$a = rb$ and
$f(a) = rf(b)$.



Consider the line from
$(b, f(b))$
to
$(rb, rf(b))$.
This has equation
$c(b, f(b))+(1-c)(rb, rf(b))$
for $c in mathbbR$
or



$c(b-rb, f(b)-rf(b))+(rb, rf(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+r(b, f(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+(a, f(a))
$.



Frustrating.
I can't see where
this leads to a contradiction.
What I would like to do
is show that this line
which passes through
two points on
$partial U$
also passes through
a third point,
which would be a contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer













I have an approach
that seems promising to me
but I can't push it through.
I'll enter it here
in the hope that
someone else can complete it.



$partial U$
can be described as
$(t, f(t))$
for
$0 le t lt 2pi$.



Suppose $(0, 0) in U$
$partial U$.



Suppose
$partial U cap partial(rU) ne emptyset$
where $0 < r < 1$.



Then there are
$a, b in [0, 2pi)$
such that
$(a, f(a)) = r(b, f(b))$
so that
$a = rb$ and
$f(a) = rf(b)$.



Consider the line from
$(b, f(b))$
to
$(rb, rf(b))$.
This has equation
$c(b, f(b))+(1-c)(rb, rf(b))$
for $c in mathbbR$
or



$c(b-rb, f(b)-rf(b))+(rb, rf(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+r(b, f(b))\
=c(1-r)(b, f(b))+(a, f(a))
$.



Frustrating.
I can't see where
this leads to a contradiction.
What I would like to do
is show that this line
which passes through
two points on
$partial U$
also passes through
a third point,
which would be a contradiction.







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answered Jul 23 at 22:43









marty cohen

69.1k446122




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  • Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 0:02










  • Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
    – marty cohen
    Jul 24 at 2:39
















  • Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
    – Tanius
    Jul 24 at 0:02










  • Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
    – marty cohen
    Jul 24 at 2:39















Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
– Tanius
Jul 24 at 0:02




Thank you for your help. I'm still trying to grasp why there "must" be a third point, though...
– Tanius
Jul 24 at 0:02












Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
– marty cohen
Jul 24 at 2:39




Because the line goes inside the contract set and so must leave it. But I'm not able to find a proof to match that intuition.
– marty cohen
Jul 24 at 2:39












 

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