Basis for a subspace of $mathbbC^n$ such that the real part is also a basis
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Let $V subseteq mathbbC^n$ be a subspace of dimension $k$, viewing $mathbbC^n$ as a complex vector space. For $v in V$, we can take the "real part" of $v$ by just taking the real part of each entry. Then $mathrmRe(v) enspace vert enspace v in V$ is a real vector space.
Is the dimension of this vector space necessarily $k$? In other words, is there a basis of $V$ such that the real part of the basis is a basis of this real vector space?
I feel like the answer must be yes, and that this should be a generic property. However, this taking real parts operation doesn't seem to have very nice properties.
linear-algebra
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up vote
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Let $V subseteq mathbbC^n$ be a subspace of dimension $k$, viewing $mathbbC^n$ as a complex vector space. For $v in V$, we can take the "real part" of $v$ by just taking the real part of each entry. Then $mathrmRe(v) enspace vert enspace v in V$ is a real vector space.
Is the dimension of this vector space necessarily $k$? In other words, is there a basis of $V$ such that the real part of the basis is a basis of this real vector space?
I feel like the answer must be yes, and that this should be a generic property. However, this taking real parts operation doesn't seem to have very nice properties.
linear-algebra
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $V subseteq mathbbC^n$ be a subspace of dimension $k$, viewing $mathbbC^n$ as a complex vector space. For $v in V$, we can take the "real part" of $v$ by just taking the real part of each entry. Then $mathrmRe(v) enspace vert enspace v in V$ is a real vector space.
Is the dimension of this vector space necessarily $k$? In other words, is there a basis of $V$ such that the real part of the basis is a basis of this real vector space?
I feel like the answer must be yes, and that this should be a generic property. However, this taking real parts operation doesn't seem to have very nice properties.
linear-algebra
Let $V subseteq mathbbC^n$ be a subspace of dimension $k$, viewing $mathbbC^n$ as a complex vector space. For $v in V$, we can take the "real part" of $v$ by just taking the real part of each entry. Then $mathrmRe(v) enspace vert enspace v in V$ is a real vector space.
Is the dimension of this vector space necessarily $k$? In other words, is there a basis of $V$ such that the real part of the basis is a basis of this real vector space?
I feel like the answer must be yes, and that this should be a generic property. However, this taking real parts operation doesn't seem to have very nice properties.
linear-algebra
asked Jul 23 at 23:31
vukov
759414
759414
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1 Answer
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No. For example, consider $V = operatornamespan(1, 1 + i)$. We compute the space directly:
beginalign*
operatornameRe((x + iy)(1, 1 + i)) &= (operatornameRe(x + iy),operatornameRe(x - y + (x + y)i)) \
&= (x, x - y) \
&= x(1, 1) + y(0, -1),
endalign*
which yields all of $mathbbR^2$.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
No. For example, consider $V = operatornamespan(1, 1 + i)$. We compute the space directly:
beginalign*
operatornameRe((x + iy)(1, 1 + i)) &= (operatornameRe(x + iy),operatornameRe(x - y + (x + y)i)) \
&= (x, x - y) \
&= x(1, 1) + y(0, -1),
endalign*
which yields all of $mathbbR^2$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
No. For example, consider $V = operatornamespan(1, 1 + i)$. We compute the space directly:
beginalign*
operatornameRe((x + iy)(1, 1 + i)) &= (operatornameRe(x + iy),operatornameRe(x - y + (x + y)i)) \
&= (x, x - y) \
&= x(1, 1) + y(0, -1),
endalign*
which yields all of $mathbbR^2$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
No. For example, consider $V = operatornamespan(1, 1 + i)$. We compute the space directly:
beginalign*
operatornameRe((x + iy)(1, 1 + i)) &= (operatornameRe(x + iy),operatornameRe(x - y + (x + y)i)) \
&= (x, x - y) \
&= x(1, 1) + y(0, -1),
endalign*
which yields all of $mathbbR^2$.
No. For example, consider $V = operatornamespan(1, 1 + i)$. We compute the space directly:
beginalign*
operatornameRe((x + iy)(1, 1 + i)) &= (operatornameRe(x + iy),operatornameRe(x - y + (x + y)i)) \
&= (x, x - y) \
&= x(1, 1) + y(0, -1),
endalign*
which yields all of $mathbbR^2$.
answered Jul 23 at 23:55
Theo Bendit
12k1843
12k1843
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