Find the sum of an infinite series that involve a discrete random variable

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I need to find the sum of the following series $sumlimits_n=1^infty fracX_ne^n$ , where $X_n$ be I.I.D ,$P(X_n=1)=frac12$ or $P(X_n=-1)=frac12$



Using the ratio test, it can be shown that this series is convergent.Because,



$lim left| fraca_n+1a_n right|= lim left| frac1e right|$<1 .



But is there any method to find the actual sum ??



can i split this sum as $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ - $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ since $X_n$ can only take 1 and -1 ?







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    I need to find the sum of the following series $sumlimits_n=1^infty fracX_ne^n$ , where $X_n$ be I.I.D ,$P(X_n=1)=frac12$ or $P(X_n=-1)=frac12$



    Using the ratio test, it can be shown that this series is convergent.Because,



    $lim left| fraca_n+1a_n right|= lim left| frac1e right|$<1 .



    But is there any method to find the actual sum ??



    can i split this sum as $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ - $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ since $X_n$ can only take 1 and -1 ?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I need to find the sum of the following series $sumlimits_n=1^infty fracX_ne^n$ , where $X_n$ be I.I.D ,$P(X_n=1)=frac12$ or $P(X_n=-1)=frac12$



      Using the ratio test, it can be shown that this series is convergent.Because,



      $lim left| fraca_n+1a_n right|= lim left| frac1e right|$<1 .



      But is there any method to find the actual sum ??



      can i split this sum as $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ - $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ since $X_n$ can only take 1 and -1 ?







      share|cite|improve this question













      I need to find the sum of the following series $sumlimits_n=1^infty fracX_ne^n$ , where $X_n$ be I.I.D ,$P(X_n=1)=frac12$ or $P(X_n=-1)=frac12$



      Using the ratio test, it can be shown that this series is convergent.Because,



      $lim left| fraca_n+1a_n right|= lim left| frac1e right|$<1 .



      But is there any method to find the actual sum ??



      can i split this sum as $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ - $sumlimits_n=1^infty frac1e^n$ since $X_n$ can only take 1 and -1 ?









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 24 at 0:56









      Math1000

      18.4k31444




      18.4k31444









      asked Jul 23 at 23:35









      Stat lover

      4411




      4411




















          1 Answer
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          You are only given the distribution of $X_n$'s and not a specific definition as functions on a sample space. You cannot write down the sum of the series. But one cans show that the series converges with probability $1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 23 at 23:45






          • 3




            @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
            – Clement C.
            Jul 24 at 0:15






          • 2




            @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 0:28







          • 1




            Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
            – Math1000
            Jul 24 at 1:26






          • 1




            @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 2:07











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          1 Answer
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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You are only given the distribution of $X_n$'s and not a specific definition as functions on a sample space. You cannot write down the sum of the series. But one cans show that the series converges with probability $1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 23 at 23:45






          • 3




            @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
            – Clement C.
            Jul 24 at 0:15






          • 2




            @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 0:28







          • 1




            Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
            – Math1000
            Jul 24 at 1:26






          • 1




            @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 2:07















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You are only given the distribution of $X_n$'s and not a specific definition as functions on a sample space. You cannot write down the sum of the series. But one cans show that the series converges with probability $1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 23 at 23:45






          • 3




            @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
            – Clement C.
            Jul 24 at 0:15






          • 2




            @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 0:28







          • 1




            Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
            – Math1000
            Jul 24 at 1:26






          • 1




            @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 2:07













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          You are only given the distribution of $X_n$'s and not a specific definition as functions on a sample space. You cannot write down the sum of the series. But one cans show that the series converges with probability $1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          You are only given the distribution of $X_n$'s and not a specific definition as functions on a sample space. You cannot write down the sum of the series. But one cans show that the series converges with probability $1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 23 at 23:38









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          20.2k2829




          20.2k2829







          • 1




            @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 23 at 23:45






          • 3




            @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
            – Clement C.
            Jul 24 at 0:15






          • 2




            @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 0:28







          • 1




            Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
            – Math1000
            Jul 24 at 1:26






          • 1




            @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 2:07













          • 1




            @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jul 23 at 23:45






          • 3




            @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
            – Clement C.
            Jul 24 at 0:15






          • 2




            @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 0:28







          • 1




            Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
            – Math1000
            Jul 24 at 1:26






          • 1




            @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
            – spaceisdarkgreen
            Jul 24 at 2:07








          1




          1




          @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jul 23 at 23:45




          @Statlover The sum is not $0$ and you cannot evaluate the sum.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jul 23 at 23:45




          3




          3




          @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
          – Clement C.
          Jul 24 at 0:15




          @Statlover The variance of the infinite sum will be $sum_n=1^infty e^-2n = frace^-21-e^-2>0$. The sum cannot be equal to $0$ a.s...
          – Clement C.
          Jul 24 at 0:15




          2




          2




          @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
          – spaceisdarkgreen
          Jul 24 at 0:28





          @Statlover The key here is that the different 'realizations' of the randomness (i.e. the different $omega$ in the sample space $Omega$) will yield different values for the $X_i$. You have seen that with probability one their sum will converge. However it will converge to different values for different realizations of the $X_i.$ The sum is a random variable, just like the $X_i.$ We can define it formally as $S(omega) = limsup_n sum_i=1^nX_i(omega)$ (we use limsup so it will always exist, even for the (possible) null set of $omega$'s for which the sum diverges.)
          – spaceisdarkgreen
          Jul 24 at 0:28





          1




          1




          Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
          – Math1000
          Jul 24 at 1:26




          Let $S_n=sum_k=1^n e^-kX_k$ and $S=lim_ntoinfty S_n$.. Note that $$sum_k=2^infty e^-k = frac1e(e-1) approx 0.214, $$ so $$mathbb P(S >1/2) geqslant mathbb P(X_1=1) = frac12$$ and similarly $mathbb P(S<-1/2)=1/2$. So $S_n$ does not converge almost surely to zero.
          – Math1000
          Jul 24 at 1:26




          1




          1




          @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
          – spaceisdarkgreen
          Jul 24 at 2:07





          @Statlover Well a Vitali set is not measurable, but yes this concentrates on a Cantor-like set of measure zero. The seeds of this are actually in Math1000's hint above where we see that the $S$ is excluded from the interval $(-.154, .154).$ (They actually make a small error here when they say $P(S>1/2)$... it should be $P(S>1/e-.214)$)
          – spaceisdarkgreen
          Jul 24 at 2:07













           

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