Derivative Operator as a Functor?

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Whilst I was trying to think of a proof for the chain rule for Fréchet derivatives, I realized it looks very similar to the naturality axiom for functors. (Except for the need to specify points for the derivative.)



$$
D(f circ g)_p = (Df)_g(p)circ (Dg)_p sim F(f circ g) = F(f) circ F(g)
$$



Is this just a coincidence? Or is this hinting at some deeper meaning of derivatives?







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  • 1




    You might find ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+rule illuminating.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:34










  • Yes, I get the gist of it, but I’m afraid I have not reached manifolds yet in my reading
    – user577413
    Jul 20 at 9:51










  • So, basically your observation is certainly onto something. That something is investigated in category theoretic circles, as the nLab page indicates, and is a good starting point if you're interested in digging in deeper.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:59






  • 1




    Let $mathttMan$ be the category of smooth manifolds and smooth maps between manifolds. Then the assignment $M mapsto TM$ taking a manifold $M$ to its tangent bundle $TM$ can be extended to a functor $mathttMan to mathttMan$. How does it act on arrows? It takes a smooth map $f : M to N$ to its derivative $Df$, which naturally defines a smooth map $Df : TM to TM$. Indeed, the chain rule really does become $D(f circ g) = Df circ Dg$ as maps between tangent bundles.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 11:41







  • 1




    @MusaAl-hassy In this context, the derivative of $f : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at a point $x$ is its best approximation by a linear transformation $Df(x) : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at that point, in the sense that $|f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)| = o(|h|)$; from this perspective, the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity itself, i.e., for every $x in mathbbR^n$, $DI(x) = I$, which means, in the language of vector bundles, that the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity $TmathbbR^n to TmathbbR^n$.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 15:28















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












Whilst I was trying to think of a proof for the chain rule for Fréchet derivatives, I realized it looks very similar to the naturality axiom for functors. (Except for the need to specify points for the derivative.)



$$
D(f circ g)_p = (Df)_g(p)circ (Dg)_p sim F(f circ g) = F(f) circ F(g)
$$



Is this just a coincidence? Or is this hinting at some deeper meaning of derivatives?







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    You might find ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+rule illuminating.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:34










  • Yes, I get the gist of it, but I’m afraid I have not reached manifolds yet in my reading
    – user577413
    Jul 20 at 9:51










  • So, basically your observation is certainly onto something. That something is investigated in category theoretic circles, as the nLab page indicates, and is a good starting point if you're interested in digging in deeper.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:59






  • 1




    Let $mathttMan$ be the category of smooth manifolds and smooth maps between manifolds. Then the assignment $M mapsto TM$ taking a manifold $M$ to its tangent bundle $TM$ can be extended to a functor $mathttMan to mathttMan$. How does it act on arrows? It takes a smooth map $f : M to N$ to its derivative $Df$, which naturally defines a smooth map $Df : TM to TM$. Indeed, the chain rule really does become $D(f circ g) = Df circ Dg$ as maps between tangent bundles.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 11:41







  • 1




    @MusaAl-hassy In this context, the derivative of $f : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at a point $x$ is its best approximation by a linear transformation $Df(x) : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at that point, in the sense that $|f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)| = o(|h|)$; from this perspective, the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity itself, i.e., for every $x in mathbbR^n$, $DI(x) = I$, which means, in the language of vector bundles, that the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity $TmathbbR^n to TmathbbR^n$.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 15:28













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1





Whilst I was trying to think of a proof for the chain rule for Fréchet derivatives, I realized it looks very similar to the naturality axiom for functors. (Except for the need to specify points for the derivative.)



$$
D(f circ g)_p = (Df)_g(p)circ (Dg)_p sim F(f circ g) = F(f) circ F(g)
$$



Is this just a coincidence? Or is this hinting at some deeper meaning of derivatives?







share|cite|improve this question











Whilst I was trying to think of a proof for the chain rule for Fréchet derivatives, I realized it looks very similar to the naturality axiom for functors. (Except for the need to specify points for the derivative.)



$$
D(f circ g)_p = (Df)_g(p)circ (Dg)_p sim F(f circ g) = F(f) circ F(g)
$$



Is this just a coincidence? Or is this hinting at some deeper meaning of derivatives?









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 20 at 9:29









user577413

838




838







  • 1




    You might find ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+rule illuminating.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:34










  • Yes, I get the gist of it, but I’m afraid I have not reached manifolds yet in my reading
    – user577413
    Jul 20 at 9:51










  • So, basically your observation is certainly onto something. That something is investigated in category theoretic circles, as the nLab page indicates, and is a good starting point if you're interested in digging in deeper.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:59






  • 1




    Let $mathttMan$ be the category of smooth manifolds and smooth maps between manifolds. Then the assignment $M mapsto TM$ taking a manifold $M$ to its tangent bundle $TM$ can be extended to a functor $mathttMan to mathttMan$. How does it act on arrows? It takes a smooth map $f : M to N$ to its derivative $Df$, which naturally defines a smooth map $Df : TM to TM$. Indeed, the chain rule really does become $D(f circ g) = Df circ Dg$ as maps between tangent bundles.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 11:41







  • 1




    @MusaAl-hassy In this context, the derivative of $f : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at a point $x$ is its best approximation by a linear transformation $Df(x) : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at that point, in the sense that $|f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)| = o(|h|)$; from this perspective, the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity itself, i.e., for every $x in mathbbR^n$, $DI(x) = I$, which means, in the language of vector bundles, that the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity $TmathbbR^n to TmathbbR^n$.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 15:28













  • 1




    You might find ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+rule illuminating.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:34










  • Yes, I get the gist of it, but I’m afraid I have not reached manifolds yet in my reading
    – user577413
    Jul 20 at 9:51










  • So, basically your observation is certainly onto something. That something is investigated in category theoretic circles, as the nLab page indicates, and is a good starting point if you're interested in digging in deeper.
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jul 20 at 9:59






  • 1




    Let $mathttMan$ be the category of smooth manifolds and smooth maps between manifolds. Then the assignment $M mapsto TM$ taking a manifold $M$ to its tangent bundle $TM$ can be extended to a functor $mathttMan to mathttMan$. How does it act on arrows? It takes a smooth map $f : M to N$ to its derivative $Df$, which naturally defines a smooth map $Df : TM to TM$. Indeed, the chain rule really does become $D(f circ g) = Df circ Dg$ as maps between tangent bundles.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 11:41







  • 1




    @MusaAl-hassy In this context, the derivative of $f : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at a point $x$ is its best approximation by a linear transformation $Df(x) : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at that point, in the sense that $|f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)| = o(|h|)$; from this perspective, the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity itself, i.e., for every $x in mathbbR^n$, $DI(x) = I$, which means, in the language of vector bundles, that the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity $TmathbbR^n to TmathbbR^n$.
    – Branimir Ćaćić
    Jul 20 at 15:28








1




1




You might find ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+rule illuminating.
– Ittay Weiss
Jul 20 at 9:34




You might find ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+rule illuminating.
– Ittay Weiss
Jul 20 at 9:34












Yes, I get the gist of it, but I’m afraid I have not reached manifolds yet in my reading
– user577413
Jul 20 at 9:51




Yes, I get the gist of it, but I’m afraid I have not reached manifolds yet in my reading
– user577413
Jul 20 at 9:51












So, basically your observation is certainly onto something. That something is investigated in category theoretic circles, as the nLab page indicates, and is a good starting point if you're interested in digging in deeper.
– Ittay Weiss
Jul 20 at 9:59




So, basically your observation is certainly onto something. That something is investigated in category theoretic circles, as the nLab page indicates, and is a good starting point if you're interested in digging in deeper.
– Ittay Weiss
Jul 20 at 9:59




1




1




Let $mathttMan$ be the category of smooth manifolds and smooth maps between manifolds. Then the assignment $M mapsto TM$ taking a manifold $M$ to its tangent bundle $TM$ can be extended to a functor $mathttMan to mathttMan$. How does it act on arrows? It takes a smooth map $f : M to N$ to its derivative $Df$, which naturally defines a smooth map $Df : TM to TM$. Indeed, the chain rule really does become $D(f circ g) = Df circ Dg$ as maps between tangent bundles.
– Branimir Ćaćić
Jul 20 at 11:41





Let $mathttMan$ be the category of smooth manifolds and smooth maps between manifolds. Then the assignment $M mapsto TM$ taking a manifold $M$ to its tangent bundle $TM$ can be extended to a functor $mathttMan to mathttMan$. How does it act on arrows? It takes a smooth map $f : M to N$ to its derivative $Df$, which naturally defines a smooth map $Df : TM to TM$. Indeed, the chain rule really does become $D(f circ g) = Df circ Dg$ as maps between tangent bundles.
– Branimir Ćaćić
Jul 20 at 11:41





1




1




@MusaAl-hassy In this context, the derivative of $f : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at a point $x$ is its best approximation by a linear transformation $Df(x) : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at that point, in the sense that $|f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)| = o(|h|)$; from this perspective, the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity itself, i.e., for every $x in mathbbR^n$, $DI(x) = I$, which means, in the language of vector bundles, that the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity $TmathbbR^n to TmathbbR^n$.
– Branimir Ćaćić
Jul 20 at 15:28





@MusaAl-hassy In this context, the derivative of $f : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at a point $x$ is its best approximation by a linear transformation $Df(x) : mathbbR^m to mathbbR^n$ at that point, in the sense that $|f(x+h)-f(x)-Df(x)(h)| = o(|h|)$; from this perspective, the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity itself, i.e., for every $x in mathbbR^n$, $DI(x) = I$, which means, in the language of vector bundles, that the derivative of the identity $I : mathbbR^n to mathbbR^n$ is the identity $TmathbbR^n to TmathbbR^n$.
– Branimir Ćaćić
Jul 20 at 15:28











2 Answers
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The way I prefer to say things is this. There is a functor from, say, the category of pointed smooth manifolds to the category of vector spaces, which takes a smooth map $f : (M, m) to (N, n)$ (so $m in M, n in N$ and $f(m) = n$) to the derivative $df_m : T_m(M) to T_n(N)$. The fact that this respects composition is precisely the chain rule. There are many variations on this.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    If you're not ready to think about manifolds, you can still think of the derivative as a functor on the category whose objects are $mathbbR^m$ and whose morphisms are smooth maps. The (total) derivative of $f:mathbbR^mto mathbbR^n$ is $Tf:mathbbR^2mto mathbbR^2n$, sending $(vec x,vec y)$ to $(f(vec x),Df_vec x(vec y))$. This is the specialization of the notion of "tangent bundle" mentioned in the comments to Euclidean spaces.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      The way I prefer to say things is this. There is a functor from, say, the category of pointed smooth manifolds to the category of vector spaces, which takes a smooth map $f : (M, m) to (N, n)$ (so $m in M, n in N$ and $f(m) = n$) to the derivative $df_m : T_m(M) to T_n(N)$. The fact that this respects composition is precisely the chain rule. There are many variations on this.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted










        The way I prefer to say things is this. There is a functor from, say, the category of pointed smooth manifolds to the category of vector spaces, which takes a smooth map $f : (M, m) to (N, n)$ (so $m in M, n in N$ and $f(m) = n$) to the derivative $df_m : T_m(M) to T_n(N)$. The fact that this respects composition is precisely the chain rule. There are many variations on this.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted






          The way I prefer to say things is this. There is a functor from, say, the category of pointed smooth manifolds to the category of vector spaces, which takes a smooth map $f : (M, m) to (N, n)$ (so $m in M, n in N$ and $f(m) = n$) to the derivative $df_m : T_m(M) to T_n(N)$. The fact that this respects composition is precisely the chain rule. There are many variations on this.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          The way I prefer to say things is this. There is a functor from, say, the category of pointed smooth manifolds to the category of vector spaces, which takes a smooth map $f : (M, m) to (N, n)$ (so $m in M, n in N$ and $f(m) = n$) to the derivative $df_m : T_m(M) to T_n(N)$. The fact that this respects composition is precisely the chain rule. There are many variations on this.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 20 at 18:58









          Qiaochu Yuan

          269k32564900




          269k32564900




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If you're not ready to think about manifolds, you can still think of the derivative as a functor on the category whose objects are $mathbbR^m$ and whose morphisms are smooth maps. The (total) derivative of $f:mathbbR^mto mathbbR^n$ is $Tf:mathbbR^2mto mathbbR^2n$, sending $(vec x,vec y)$ to $(f(vec x),Df_vec x(vec y))$. This is the specialization of the notion of "tangent bundle" mentioned in the comments to Euclidean spaces.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                If you're not ready to think about manifolds, you can still think of the derivative as a functor on the category whose objects are $mathbbR^m$ and whose morphisms are smooth maps. The (total) derivative of $f:mathbbR^mto mathbbR^n$ is $Tf:mathbbR^2mto mathbbR^2n$, sending $(vec x,vec y)$ to $(f(vec x),Df_vec x(vec y))$. This is the specialization of the notion of "tangent bundle" mentioned in the comments to Euclidean spaces.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  If you're not ready to think about manifolds, you can still think of the derivative as a functor on the category whose objects are $mathbbR^m$ and whose morphisms are smooth maps. The (total) derivative of $f:mathbbR^mto mathbbR^n$ is $Tf:mathbbR^2mto mathbbR^2n$, sending $(vec x,vec y)$ to $(f(vec x),Df_vec x(vec y))$. This is the specialization of the notion of "tangent bundle" mentioned in the comments to Euclidean spaces.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  If you're not ready to think about manifolds, you can still think of the derivative as a functor on the category whose objects are $mathbbR^m$ and whose morphisms are smooth maps. The (total) derivative of $f:mathbbR^mto mathbbR^n$ is $Tf:mathbbR^2mto mathbbR^2n$, sending $(vec x,vec y)$ to $(f(vec x),Df_vec x(vec y))$. This is the specialization of the notion of "tangent bundle" mentioned in the comments to Euclidean spaces.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 20 at 18:41









                  Kevin Carlson

                  29.2k23065




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