sequent calculus for first order logic

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I've just started learning sequent calculus. Now I'm trying to prove the formula below:
$$ exists x (P → Q) ⊨ P → forall x Q $$
My approach to the problem:

$$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊣ P → forall x Q $$
$$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
$$ underline_⊢P(y) → Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
$$ underline_⊣P(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (1) _⊢Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (2) $$
In the second case we have $ _⊣forall x Q $, thus $ _⊣ Q(y) $ - contradiction (because of $_⊢Q(y)$) .

In the first one we only have $ _⊣P(y) $ and $ _⊢P $, so there is a counterexample for the formula:
$$ P(x)=T, textif x = y and F text otherwise $$
$$ Q(x)=F forall x $$

Am I right? (An unquantified $P$ is a bit embarrasing for me)







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    I've just started learning sequent calculus. Now I'm trying to prove the formula below:
    $$ exists x (P → Q) ⊨ P → forall x Q $$
    My approach to the problem:

    $$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊣ P → forall x Q $$
    $$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
    $$ underline_⊢P(y) → Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
    $$ underline_⊣P(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (1) _⊢Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (2) $$
    In the second case we have $ _⊣forall x Q $, thus $ _⊣ Q(y) $ - contradiction (because of $_⊢Q(y)$) .

    In the first one we only have $ _⊣P(y) $ and $ _⊢P $, so there is a counterexample for the formula:
    $$ P(x)=T, textif x = y and F text otherwise $$
    $$ Q(x)=F forall x $$

    Am I right? (An unquantified $P$ is a bit embarrasing for me)







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      I've just started learning sequent calculus. Now I'm trying to prove the formula below:
      $$ exists x (P → Q) ⊨ P → forall x Q $$
      My approach to the problem:

      $$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊣ P → forall x Q $$
      $$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
      $$ underline_⊢P(y) → Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
      $$ underline_⊣P(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (1) _⊢Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (2) $$
      In the second case we have $ _⊣forall x Q $, thus $ _⊣ Q(y) $ - contradiction (because of $_⊢Q(y)$) .

      In the first one we only have $ _⊣P(y) $ and $ _⊢P $, so there is a counterexample for the formula:
      $$ P(x)=T, textif x = y and F text otherwise $$
      $$ Q(x)=F forall x $$

      Am I right? (An unquantified $P$ is a bit embarrasing for me)







      share|cite|improve this question











      I've just started learning sequent calculus. Now I'm trying to prove the formula below:
      $$ exists x (P → Q) ⊨ P → forall x Q $$
      My approach to the problem:

      $$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊣ P → forall x Q $$
      $$ underline_⊢exists x (P → Q) , _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
      $$ underline_⊢P(y) → Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q $$
      $$ underline_⊣P(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (1) _⊢Q(y), _⊢P, _⊣forall x Q (2) $$
      In the second case we have $ _⊣forall x Q $, thus $ _⊣ Q(y) $ - contradiction (because of $_⊢Q(y)$) .

      In the first one we only have $ _⊣P(y) $ and $ _⊢P $, so there is a counterexample for the formula:
      $$ P(x)=T, textif x = y and F text otherwise $$
      $$ Q(x)=F forall x $$

      Am I right? (An unquantified $P$ is a bit embarrasing for me)









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      asked Jul 18 at 13:35









      mikha koltjia

      183




      183




















          1 Answer
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          Long comment



          Quite a strange way of writing sequents...



          Having said that, and assuming that $x$ is free in $P$, the answer is :




          $exists x (Px to Qx) nvDash Px to forall x Qx$.




          Assume a domain with one Black ball and one White ball and interpret $P$ with "... is Black" and $Q$ with "... is White".



          We have that $Px$ is FALSE for the White ball, and thus the conditional $Px to Qx$ is TRUE of it.



          Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $exists x (Px to Qx)$ is TRUE.



          But $P$ is TRUE of the Black ball and $forall x Qx$ is FALSE (not every ball is White).



          Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $Px to forall x Qx$ is FALSE.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            Long comment



            Quite a strange way of writing sequents...



            Having said that, and assuming that $x$ is free in $P$, the answer is :




            $exists x (Px to Qx) nvDash Px to forall x Qx$.




            Assume a domain with one Black ball and one White ball and interpret $P$ with "... is Black" and $Q$ with "... is White".



            We have that $Px$ is FALSE for the White ball, and thus the conditional $Px to Qx$ is TRUE of it.



            Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $exists x (Px to Qx)$ is TRUE.



            But $P$ is TRUE of the Black ball and $forall x Qx$ is FALSE (not every ball is White).



            Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $Px to forall x Qx$ is FALSE.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              Long comment



              Quite a strange way of writing sequents...



              Having said that, and assuming that $x$ is free in $P$, the answer is :




              $exists x (Px to Qx) nvDash Px to forall x Qx$.




              Assume a domain with one Black ball and one White ball and interpret $P$ with "... is Black" and $Q$ with "... is White".



              We have that $Px$ is FALSE for the White ball, and thus the conditional $Px to Qx$ is TRUE of it.



              Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $exists x (Px to Qx)$ is TRUE.



              But $P$ is TRUE of the Black ball and $forall x Qx$ is FALSE (not every ball is White).



              Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $Px to forall x Qx$ is FALSE.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                Long comment



                Quite a strange way of writing sequents...



                Having said that, and assuming that $x$ is free in $P$, the answer is :




                $exists x (Px to Qx) nvDash Px to forall x Qx$.




                Assume a domain with one Black ball and one White ball and interpret $P$ with "... is Black" and $Q$ with "... is White".



                We have that $Px$ is FALSE for the White ball, and thus the conditional $Px to Qx$ is TRUE of it.



                Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $exists x (Px to Qx)$ is TRUE.



                But $P$ is TRUE of the Black ball and $forall x Qx$ is FALSE (not every ball is White).



                Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $Px to forall x Qx$ is FALSE.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                Long comment



                Quite a strange way of writing sequents...



                Having said that, and assuming that $x$ is free in $P$, the answer is :




                $exists x (Px to Qx) nvDash Px to forall x Qx$.




                Assume a domain with one Black ball and one White ball and interpret $P$ with "... is Black" and $Q$ with "... is White".



                We have that $Px$ is FALSE for the White ball, and thus the conditional $Px to Qx$ is TRUE of it.



                Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $exists x (Px to Qx)$ is TRUE.



                But $P$ is TRUE of the Black ball and $forall x Qx$ is FALSE (not every ball is White).



                Thus, in this interpretation, the formula $Px to forall x Qx$ is FALSE.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 18 at 13:49









                Mauro ALLEGRANZA

                60.7k346105




                60.7k346105






















                     

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