Find the values of $p$ where $cos x - 2px$ is invertible

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I'm sorry that I posted a homework question.I just couldn't find answers properly.



I attempted in the following way:



  • To prove that it is invertible it's enough to prove that it is bijective

  • To prove that it is bijective we have to prove that it is both injective and surjective

  • I can prove injectivity by proving that it is a strictly monotonous function( Not sure about this concept also) and then get values of $ p $

  • I don't know if showing that it is monotonous for certain values of $p$ is good enough to prove it's surjectivity

Could you help me in proving it's surjectivity and also help me understand if proving strictly monotonocity is enough for injectivity or not



Any little help is appreciated!







share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    I'm sorry that I posted a homework question.I just couldn't find answers properly.



    I attempted in the following way:



    • To prove that it is invertible it's enough to prove that it is bijective

    • To prove that it is bijective we have to prove that it is both injective and surjective

    • I can prove injectivity by proving that it is a strictly monotonous function( Not sure about this concept also) and then get values of $ p $

    • I don't know if showing that it is monotonous for certain values of $p$ is good enough to prove it's surjectivity

    Could you help me in proving it's surjectivity and also help me understand if proving strictly monotonocity is enough for injectivity or not



    Any little help is appreciated!







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I'm sorry that I posted a homework question.I just couldn't find answers properly.



      I attempted in the following way:



      • To prove that it is invertible it's enough to prove that it is bijective

      • To prove that it is bijective we have to prove that it is both injective and surjective

      • I can prove injectivity by proving that it is a strictly monotonous function( Not sure about this concept also) and then get values of $ p $

      • I don't know if showing that it is monotonous for certain values of $p$ is good enough to prove it's surjectivity

      Could you help me in proving it's surjectivity and also help me understand if proving strictly monotonocity is enough for injectivity or not



      Any little help is appreciated!







      share|cite|improve this question













      I'm sorry that I posted a homework question.I just couldn't find answers properly.



      I attempted in the following way:



      • To prove that it is invertible it's enough to prove that it is bijective

      • To prove that it is bijective we have to prove that it is both injective and surjective

      • I can prove injectivity by proving that it is a strictly monotonous function( Not sure about this concept also) and then get values of $ p $

      • I don't know if showing that it is monotonous for certain values of $p$ is good enough to prove it's surjectivity

      Could you help me in proving it's surjectivity and also help me understand if proving strictly monotonocity is enough for injectivity or not



      Any little help is appreciated!









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 19 at 3:05









      Key Flex

      4,346425




      4,346425









      asked Jul 18 at 10:45









      Banchin

      162




      162




















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          If $f$ is strictly monotonous then for all $x,yinBbbR$ you have
          $$x>y Rightarrow f(x)>f(y),$$
          from which it easily follows that $f(x)=f(y) Rightarrow x=y$, so indeed $f$ is injective.



          So $f$ is invertible whenever $p$ is such that $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$, or such that $f'(x)<0$ for all $x$. This still leaves some values of $p$ unresolved though. As this is homework, I'll leave it to you (for now) to figure out what happens then.



          EDIT: Because $f'(x)=sin(x)-2p$, if $p>frac12$ then $f'(x)<0$, and if $p<frac12$ then $f'(x)>0$. Hence $f(x)$ is invertible for these values of $p$.



          If $-frac12<p<frac12$ then $f'(0)>0$ and $f'(pi)<0$. This means $f$ is not invertible (why?).



          Then the only remaining cases are $p=frac12$ and $p=-frac12$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
            – Banchin
            Jul 21 at 1:16










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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          If $f$ is strictly monotonous then for all $x,yinBbbR$ you have
          $$x>y Rightarrow f(x)>f(y),$$
          from which it easily follows that $f(x)=f(y) Rightarrow x=y$, so indeed $f$ is injective.



          So $f$ is invertible whenever $p$ is such that $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$, or such that $f'(x)<0$ for all $x$. This still leaves some values of $p$ unresolved though. As this is homework, I'll leave it to you (for now) to figure out what happens then.



          EDIT: Because $f'(x)=sin(x)-2p$, if $p>frac12$ then $f'(x)<0$, and if $p<frac12$ then $f'(x)>0$. Hence $f(x)$ is invertible for these values of $p$.



          If $-frac12<p<frac12$ then $f'(0)>0$ and $f'(pi)<0$. This means $f$ is not invertible (why?).



          Then the only remaining cases are $p=frac12$ and $p=-frac12$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
            – Banchin
            Jul 21 at 1:16














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          If $f$ is strictly monotonous then for all $x,yinBbbR$ you have
          $$x>y Rightarrow f(x)>f(y),$$
          from which it easily follows that $f(x)=f(y) Rightarrow x=y$, so indeed $f$ is injective.



          So $f$ is invertible whenever $p$ is such that $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$, or such that $f'(x)<0$ for all $x$. This still leaves some values of $p$ unresolved though. As this is homework, I'll leave it to you (for now) to figure out what happens then.



          EDIT: Because $f'(x)=sin(x)-2p$, if $p>frac12$ then $f'(x)<0$, and if $p<frac12$ then $f'(x)>0$. Hence $f(x)$ is invertible for these values of $p$.



          If $-frac12<p<frac12$ then $f'(0)>0$ and $f'(pi)<0$. This means $f$ is not invertible (why?).



          Then the only remaining cases are $p=frac12$ and $p=-frac12$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
            – Banchin
            Jul 21 at 1:16












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          If $f$ is strictly monotonous then for all $x,yinBbbR$ you have
          $$x>y Rightarrow f(x)>f(y),$$
          from which it easily follows that $f(x)=f(y) Rightarrow x=y$, so indeed $f$ is injective.



          So $f$ is invertible whenever $p$ is such that $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$, or such that $f'(x)<0$ for all $x$. This still leaves some values of $p$ unresolved though. As this is homework, I'll leave it to you (for now) to figure out what happens then.



          EDIT: Because $f'(x)=sin(x)-2p$, if $p>frac12$ then $f'(x)<0$, and if $p<frac12$ then $f'(x)>0$. Hence $f(x)$ is invertible for these values of $p$.



          If $-frac12<p<frac12$ then $f'(0)>0$ and $f'(pi)<0$. This means $f$ is not invertible (why?).



          Then the only remaining cases are $p=frac12$ and $p=-frac12$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          If $f$ is strictly monotonous then for all $x,yinBbbR$ you have
          $$x>y Rightarrow f(x)>f(y),$$
          from which it easily follows that $f(x)=f(y) Rightarrow x=y$, so indeed $f$ is injective.



          So $f$ is invertible whenever $p$ is such that $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$, or such that $f'(x)<0$ for all $x$. This still leaves some values of $p$ unresolved though. As this is homework, I'll leave it to you (for now) to figure out what happens then.



          EDIT: Because $f'(x)=sin(x)-2p$, if $p>frac12$ then $f'(x)<0$, and if $p<frac12$ then $f'(x)>0$. Hence $f(x)$ is invertible for these values of $p$.



          If $-frac12<p<frac12$ then $f'(0)>0$ and $f'(pi)<0$. This means $f$ is not invertible (why?).



          Then the only remaining cases are $p=frac12$ and $p=-frac12$.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 24 at 17:40


























          answered Jul 18 at 10:49









          Servaes

          20.2k33484




          20.2k33484











          • I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
            – Banchin
            Jul 21 at 1:16
















          • I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
            – Banchin
            Jul 21 at 1:16















          I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
          – Banchin
          Jul 21 at 1:16




          I'm sorry, I still couldn't find a way for checking it's surjectivity...could you help me with that?
          – Banchin
          Jul 21 at 1:16












           

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