Extension of Uniformly Differentiable function - from open ball to $mathbbR^n$

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Consider $f: U to mathbbR^m$, where $U$ is an open ball in $mathbbR^n$.




Suppose $f$ is uniformly differentiable on $U$:



$$forall epsilon>0,,exists delta>0:|!|bf h|!|<delta,bf x,bf x+bf hin U Longrightarrow |!|f(bf x+bf h)-f(bf x)-f'(bf x)(bf h)|!|<epsilon |bf h|$$




That is, the $delta$ is valid for all $bf x$.



I wonder if the following is true:




Question: Can we always construct an extension of $barf$ of $f$, such that $barf(bf x) = f(bf x)$, for $bf x in U$, and $barf$ uniformly differentiable on $mathbbR^n$?








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    Consider $f: U to mathbbR^m$, where $U$ is an open ball in $mathbbR^n$.




    Suppose $f$ is uniformly differentiable on $U$:



    $$forall epsilon>0,,exists delta>0:|!|bf h|!|<delta,bf x,bf x+bf hin U Longrightarrow |!|f(bf x+bf h)-f(bf x)-f'(bf x)(bf h)|!|<epsilon |bf h|$$




    That is, the $delta$ is valid for all $bf x$.



    I wonder if the following is true:




    Question: Can we always construct an extension of $barf$ of $f$, such that $barf(bf x) = f(bf x)$, for $bf x in U$, and $barf$ uniformly differentiable on $mathbbR^n$?








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      Consider $f: U to mathbbR^m$, where $U$ is an open ball in $mathbbR^n$.




      Suppose $f$ is uniformly differentiable on $U$:



      $$forall epsilon>0,,exists delta>0:|!|bf h|!|<delta,bf x,bf x+bf hin U Longrightarrow |!|f(bf x+bf h)-f(bf x)-f'(bf x)(bf h)|!|<epsilon |bf h|$$




      That is, the $delta$ is valid for all $bf x$.



      I wonder if the following is true:




      Question: Can we always construct an extension of $barf$ of $f$, such that $barf(bf x) = f(bf x)$, for $bf x in U$, and $barf$ uniformly differentiable on $mathbbR^n$?








      share|cite|improve this question













      Consider $f: U to mathbbR^m$, where $U$ is an open ball in $mathbbR^n$.




      Suppose $f$ is uniformly differentiable on $U$:



      $$forall epsilon>0,,exists delta>0:|!|bf h|!|<delta,bf x,bf x+bf hin U Longrightarrow |!|f(bf x+bf h)-f(bf x)-f'(bf x)(bf h)|!|<epsilon |bf h|$$




      That is, the $delta$ is valid for all $bf x$.



      I wonder if the following is true:




      Question: Can we always construct an extension of $barf$ of $f$, such that $barf(bf x) = f(bf x)$, for $bf x in U$, and $barf$ uniformly differentiable on $mathbbR^n$?










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      share|cite|improve this question




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      edited Jul 19 at 0:12
























      asked Jul 18 at 21:10









      Guillaume F.

      351211




      351211




















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          Consider $n=m=1$, $U=(-1,1)$, $f(x)=sqrtx+1$.

          Obviously $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not at $x=-1$.



          In fact, the tangent there would become vertical, or equivalently:

          $f'(x)$ would increase beyond any bound.



          --- rk






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          • Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
            – Guillaume F.
            Jul 19 at 0:13










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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Consider $n=m=1$, $U=(-1,1)$, $f(x)=sqrtx+1$.

          Obviously $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not at $x=-1$.



          In fact, the tangent there would become vertical, or equivalently:

          $f'(x)$ would increase beyond any bound.



          --- rk






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
            – Guillaume F.
            Jul 19 at 0:13














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Consider $n=m=1$, $U=(-1,1)$, $f(x)=sqrtx+1$.

          Obviously $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not at $x=-1$.



          In fact, the tangent there would become vertical, or equivalently:

          $f'(x)$ would increase beyond any bound.



          --- rk






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
            – Guillaume F.
            Jul 19 at 0:13












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Consider $n=m=1$, $U=(-1,1)$, $f(x)=sqrtx+1$.

          Obviously $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not at $x=-1$.



          In fact, the tangent there would become vertical, or equivalently:

          $f'(x)$ would increase beyond any bound.



          --- rk






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Consider $n=m=1$, $U=(-1,1)$, $f(x)=sqrtx+1$.

          Obviously $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not at $x=-1$.



          In fact, the tangent there would become vertical, or equivalently:

          $f'(x)$ would increase beyond any bound.



          --- rk







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 18 at 21:50


























          answered Jul 18 at 21:38









          Dr. Richard Klitzing

          7586




          7586











          • Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
            – Guillaume F.
            Jul 19 at 0:13
















          • Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
            – Guillaume F.
            Jul 19 at 0:13















          Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
          – Guillaume F.
          Jul 19 at 0:13




          Your $f$ is differentiable on $U$, but not uniformly differentiable on $U$.
          – Guillaume F.
          Jul 19 at 0:13












           

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