Finding domain of implicit functions.

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Suppose $f(x,y)=k$ where k is a constant. I am supposed to find the domain of $ f(x,y)=1$ so should I check for the value of $x $where $f(x,y)$ is defined or first write $ y=f(x) $and then find the values of x for which f(x) is defined. Consider $x^2y=1$. The domain will be all real x I think but the answer in my book is given as only $x>0 $or $ x=0.$







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    Suppose $f(x,y)=k$ where k is a constant. I am supposed to find the domain of $ f(x,y)=1$ so should I check for the value of $x $where $f(x,y)$ is defined or first write $ y=f(x) $and then find the values of x for which f(x) is defined. Consider $x^2y=1$. The domain will be all real x I think but the answer in my book is given as only $x>0 $or $ x=0.$







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      up vote
      1
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      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose $f(x,y)=k$ where k is a constant. I am supposed to find the domain of $ f(x,y)=1$ so should I check for the value of $x $where $f(x,y)$ is defined or first write $ y=f(x) $and then find the values of x for which f(x) is defined. Consider $x^2y=1$. The domain will be all real x I think but the answer in my book is given as only $x>0 $or $ x=0.$







      share|cite|improve this question











      Suppose $f(x,y)=k$ where k is a constant. I am supposed to find the domain of $ f(x,y)=1$ so should I check for the value of $x $where $f(x,y)$ is defined or first write $ y=f(x) $and then find the values of x for which f(x) is defined. Consider $x^2y=1$. The domain will be all real x I think but the answer in my book is given as only $x>0 $or $ x=0.$









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      asked Jul 24 at 13:43









      Jasmine

      322111




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          The given function
          $$f(x,y):=x^2y$$
          has as domain the right half plane $$H:=bigl x>0, -infty<y<inftybigr ,$$
          because as soon as you consider powers $b^t$ with variable noninteger exponents the base $b$ is automatically restricted to $mathbb R_>0$.



          Let's see whether the equation $f(x,y)=1$, i.e., $x^2y=1$, "defines $y$ as a function of $x$" in some way. Note that by definition $$1=x^2y:=exp(2ylog x) ,$$ and as $exp$ is monotonically increasing this is equivalent with $2ylog x=0$. It follows that
          $$y=0quadveequad log x=0,quadrm resp.,quad y=0quadveequad x=1 .$$
          In other words the solution set $$bigl f(x,y)=1bigr$$
          consists of the horizontal half line $y=0$ together with the vertical line $x=1$.



          We therefore can say the following: The given equation defines implicitly the function $y=phi(x):equiv0$ separately in the $x$-intervals $(0,1)$ and $(1,infty)$.






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            Take $x=-1,;y=1/2.$ Then $x^2y=-1$ and not $1.$ Given any negative $x$-value you can choose a $y$ which makes the equality fail.






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            • But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
              – Jasmine
              Jul 24 at 14:06










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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted










            The given function
            $$f(x,y):=x^2y$$
            has as domain the right half plane $$H:=bigl x>0, -infty<y<inftybigr ,$$
            because as soon as you consider powers $b^t$ with variable noninteger exponents the base $b$ is automatically restricted to $mathbb R_>0$.



            Let's see whether the equation $f(x,y)=1$, i.e., $x^2y=1$, "defines $y$ as a function of $x$" in some way. Note that by definition $$1=x^2y:=exp(2ylog x) ,$$ and as $exp$ is monotonically increasing this is equivalent with $2ylog x=0$. It follows that
            $$y=0quadveequad log x=0,quadrm resp.,quad y=0quadveequad x=1 .$$
            In other words the solution set $$bigl f(x,y)=1bigr$$
            consists of the horizontal half line $y=0$ together with the vertical line $x=1$.



            We therefore can say the following: The given equation defines implicitly the function $y=phi(x):equiv0$ separately in the $x$-intervals $(0,1)$ and $(1,infty)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted










              The given function
              $$f(x,y):=x^2y$$
              has as domain the right half plane $$H:=bigl x>0, -infty<y<inftybigr ,$$
              because as soon as you consider powers $b^t$ with variable noninteger exponents the base $b$ is automatically restricted to $mathbb R_>0$.



              Let's see whether the equation $f(x,y)=1$, i.e., $x^2y=1$, "defines $y$ as a function of $x$" in some way. Note that by definition $$1=x^2y:=exp(2ylog x) ,$$ and as $exp$ is monotonically increasing this is equivalent with $2ylog x=0$. It follows that
              $$y=0quadveequad log x=0,quadrm resp.,quad y=0quadveequad x=1 .$$
              In other words the solution set $$bigl f(x,y)=1bigr$$
              consists of the horizontal half line $y=0$ together with the vertical line $x=1$.



              We therefore can say the following: The given equation defines implicitly the function $y=phi(x):equiv0$ separately in the $x$-intervals $(0,1)$ and $(1,infty)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted






                The given function
                $$f(x,y):=x^2y$$
                has as domain the right half plane $$H:=bigl x>0, -infty<y<inftybigr ,$$
                because as soon as you consider powers $b^t$ with variable noninteger exponents the base $b$ is automatically restricted to $mathbb R_>0$.



                Let's see whether the equation $f(x,y)=1$, i.e., $x^2y=1$, "defines $y$ as a function of $x$" in some way. Note that by definition $$1=x^2y:=exp(2ylog x) ,$$ and as $exp$ is monotonically increasing this is equivalent with $2ylog x=0$. It follows that
                $$y=0quadveequad log x=0,quadrm resp.,quad y=0quadveequad x=1 .$$
                In other words the solution set $$bigl f(x,y)=1bigr$$
                consists of the horizontal half line $y=0$ together with the vertical line $x=1$.



                We therefore can say the following: The given equation defines implicitly the function $y=phi(x):equiv0$ separately in the $x$-intervals $(0,1)$ and $(1,infty)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer













                The given function
                $$f(x,y):=x^2y$$
                has as domain the right half plane $$H:=bigl x>0, -infty<y<inftybigr ,$$
                because as soon as you consider powers $b^t$ with variable noninteger exponents the base $b$ is automatically restricted to $mathbb R_>0$.



                Let's see whether the equation $f(x,y)=1$, i.e., $x^2y=1$, "defines $y$ as a function of $x$" in some way. Note that by definition $$1=x^2y:=exp(2ylog x) ,$$ and as $exp$ is monotonically increasing this is equivalent with $2ylog x=0$. It follows that
                $$y=0quadveequad log x=0,quadrm resp.,quad y=0quadveequad x=1 .$$
                In other words the solution set $$bigl f(x,y)=1bigr$$
                consists of the horizontal half line $y=0$ together with the vertical line $x=1$.



                We therefore can say the following: The given equation defines implicitly the function $y=phi(x):equiv0$ separately in the $x$-intervals $(0,1)$ and $(1,infty)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Jul 24 at 14:45









                Christian Blatter

                163k7107306




                163k7107306




















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    Take $x=-1,;y=1/2.$ Then $x^2y=-1$ and not $1.$ Given any negative $x$-value you can choose a $y$ which makes the equality fail.






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                    • But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
                      – Jasmine
                      Jul 24 at 14:06














                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    Take $x=-1,;y=1/2.$ Then $x^2y=-1$ and not $1.$ Given any negative $x$-value you can choose a $y$ which makes the equality fail.






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                    • But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
                      – Jasmine
                      Jul 24 at 14:06












                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    Take $x=-1,;y=1/2.$ Then $x^2y=-1$ and not $1.$ Given any negative $x$-value you can choose a $y$ which makes the equality fail.






                    share|cite|improve this answer















                    Take $x=-1,;y=1/2.$ Then $x^2y=-1$ and not $1.$ Given any negative $x$-value you can choose a $y$ which makes the equality fail.







                    share|cite|improve this answer















                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Jul 24 at 19:34









                    amWhy

                    189k25219431




                    189k25219431











                    answered Jul 24 at 14:04









                    Jimmy Mixco

                    2013




                    2013











                    • But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
                      – Jasmine
                      Jul 24 at 14:06
















                    • But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
                      – Jasmine
                      Jul 24 at 14:06















                    But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
                    – Jasmine
                    Jul 24 at 14:06




                    But there can be certain y for which it satisfies the equation right. I think that at x=-1 y should be equal to any integer right?
                    – Jasmine
                    Jul 24 at 14:06












                     

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