Law of large numbers for sequence of running minima of i.i.d. Uniform (0,1) random variables

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Let $(X_i)$ be i.i.d. Unif$(0,1)$. Define $M_n=minX_1,ldots,X_n$ and $T_n=sumlimits_k=1^n M_k$ for every $nge1$. Show that $$dfracT_nE(T_n)stackrelPto 1$$




The problem I am encountering is that the random variables $M_n$ are not independent or uncorrelated so $operatornameVar(T_n)$ does not seem to have a nice expression.







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    Let $(X_i)$ be i.i.d. Unif$(0,1)$. Define $M_n=minX_1,ldots,X_n$ and $T_n=sumlimits_k=1^n M_k$ for every $nge1$. Show that $$dfracT_nE(T_n)stackrelPto 1$$




    The problem I am encountering is that the random variables $M_n$ are not independent or uncorrelated so $operatornameVar(T_n)$ does not seem to have a nice expression.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
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      down vote

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      Let $(X_i)$ be i.i.d. Unif$(0,1)$. Define $M_n=minX_1,ldots,X_n$ and $T_n=sumlimits_k=1^n M_k$ for every $nge1$. Show that $$dfracT_nE(T_n)stackrelPto 1$$




      The problem I am encountering is that the random variables $M_n$ are not independent or uncorrelated so $operatornameVar(T_n)$ does not seem to have a nice expression.







      share|cite|improve this question














      Let $(X_i)$ be i.i.d. Unif$(0,1)$. Define $M_n=minX_1,ldots,X_n$ and $T_n=sumlimits_k=1^n M_k$ for every $nge1$. Show that $$dfracT_nE(T_n)stackrelPto 1$$




      The problem I am encountering is that the random variables $M_n$ are not independent or uncorrelated so $operatornameVar(T_n)$ does not seem to have a nice expression.









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 31 at 12:48









      Davide Giraudo

      121k15146249




      121k15146249









      asked Jul 24 at 7:37









      Andrew Richards

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          This is not the answer; it is just to save the time of a person who would like to try the approach with correlation. It turns out that the sequence we want to prove the convergence in probability is bounded in $mathbb L^2$ hence uniformly integrable, hence it should also converge in $mathbb L^1$ to $0$.



          First let us extract some useful information from this thread: the expectation of $M_n$ is $1/(n+1)$ and its density is $nleft(1-uright)^n-1mathbf 1_(0,1)(u)$. As a consequence, $mathbb Eleft[T_nright]=sum_i=1^n1/(i+1)$ and it would suffices to prove that
          $$lim_nto +infty
          frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[left(sum_i=1^nM_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0.
          $$
          To this aim, we would like to show that
          $$tag1
          lim_nto +infty
          frac 1left(ln nright)^2sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0;
          $$
          $$tag2lim_nto +infty
          frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[ sum_1leqslant ilt jleqslant nM_iM_j-mathbb Eleft[M_iM_jright] right]=0.
          $$



          • Let us show (1). Using the expression for the density of $M_i$, we get
            $$
            mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=int_0^1u^2ileft(1-uright)^i-1mathrm du
            =int_0^1left(1-vright)^2iv^i-1mathrm dv=1-2fracii+1+fracii+2
            $$
            which can be simplified as
            $$
            mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=frac 2i+1-frac 2i+2,
            $$
            hence $$sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=1-frac2n+2-sum_i=1^nfrac 1(i+1)^2leqslant 1,
            $$
            from which (1) follows.


          • Let us look at (2). Observe that (2) can be rewritten as
            $$
            lim_nto +infty
            frac 1left(ln nright)^2 sum_i=1^n sum_j=1^n-ic_i,j =0,
            $$
            where $c_i,j:=mathbb Eleft[M_iM_i+jright]-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]mathbb Eleft[M_i+jright] $.
            Observing that $M_i+j$ has the same law as $minleftM_i,M'_jright$, where $M'_j$ has the same law as $M_j$ and is independent of $M_i$, we get
            $$
            c_i,j=int_0^1int_0^1uminleftu,vrightileft(1-uright)^i-1jleft(1-vright)^j-1mathrm dumathrm dv-frac 1left(i+1right)left(j+1right).
            $$
            A computation shows that
            $$
            c_i,j=frac 1j+1left(fracii+j+2-fracii+j+1right),
            $$
            which can be transformed as
            $$
            c_i,j=frac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1+frac 1(j+1)(i+j+2).
            $$
            For the first two terms, we switch the sum and use telescoping in $i$ to find
            $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1=sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1fracn-j+1n+2-frac 1j+1frac2j+3
            $$
            hence
            $$
            leftlvert sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1rightrvertleqslant 3sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1
            $$
            which is negligible with respect to $(ln n)^2$.
            For the last term, it behaves like
            $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=j+1^nfrac 1ij=sum_i=2^nfrac 1i sum_j=1^i-1frac 1j,$$
            which is exactly the failure of (2), since the latter quantity is of order $(ln n)^2$.






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            This is not the answer; it is just to save the time of a person who would like to try the approach with correlation. It turns out that the sequence we want to prove the convergence in probability is bounded in $mathbb L^2$ hence uniformly integrable, hence it should also converge in $mathbb L^1$ to $0$.



            First let us extract some useful information from this thread: the expectation of $M_n$ is $1/(n+1)$ and its density is $nleft(1-uright)^n-1mathbf 1_(0,1)(u)$. As a consequence, $mathbb Eleft[T_nright]=sum_i=1^n1/(i+1)$ and it would suffices to prove that
            $$lim_nto +infty
            frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[left(sum_i=1^nM_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0.
            $$
            To this aim, we would like to show that
            $$tag1
            lim_nto +infty
            frac 1left(ln nright)^2sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0;
            $$
            $$tag2lim_nto +infty
            frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[ sum_1leqslant ilt jleqslant nM_iM_j-mathbb Eleft[M_iM_jright] right]=0.
            $$



            • Let us show (1). Using the expression for the density of $M_i$, we get
              $$
              mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=int_0^1u^2ileft(1-uright)^i-1mathrm du
              =int_0^1left(1-vright)^2iv^i-1mathrm dv=1-2fracii+1+fracii+2
              $$
              which can be simplified as
              $$
              mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=frac 2i+1-frac 2i+2,
              $$
              hence $$sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=1-frac2n+2-sum_i=1^nfrac 1(i+1)^2leqslant 1,
              $$
              from which (1) follows.


            • Let us look at (2). Observe that (2) can be rewritten as
              $$
              lim_nto +infty
              frac 1left(ln nright)^2 sum_i=1^n sum_j=1^n-ic_i,j =0,
              $$
              where $c_i,j:=mathbb Eleft[M_iM_i+jright]-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]mathbb Eleft[M_i+jright] $.
              Observing that $M_i+j$ has the same law as $minleftM_i,M'_jright$, where $M'_j$ has the same law as $M_j$ and is independent of $M_i$, we get
              $$
              c_i,j=int_0^1int_0^1uminleftu,vrightileft(1-uright)^i-1jleft(1-vright)^j-1mathrm dumathrm dv-frac 1left(i+1right)left(j+1right).
              $$
              A computation shows that
              $$
              c_i,j=frac 1j+1left(fracii+j+2-fracii+j+1right),
              $$
              which can be transformed as
              $$
              c_i,j=frac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1+frac 1(j+1)(i+j+2).
              $$
              For the first two terms, we switch the sum and use telescoping in $i$ to find
              $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1=sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1fracn-j+1n+2-frac 1j+1frac2j+3
              $$
              hence
              $$
              leftlvert sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1rightrvertleqslant 3sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1
              $$
              which is negligible with respect to $(ln n)^2$.
              For the last term, it behaves like
              $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=j+1^nfrac 1ij=sum_i=2^nfrac 1i sum_j=1^i-1frac 1j,$$
              which is exactly the failure of (2), since the latter quantity is of order $(ln n)^2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              This is not the answer; it is just to save the time of a person who would like to try the approach with correlation. It turns out that the sequence we want to prove the convergence in probability is bounded in $mathbb L^2$ hence uniformly integrable, hence it should also converge in $mathbb L^1$ to $0$.



              First let us extract some useful information from this thread: the expectation of $M_n$ is $1/(n+1)$ and its density is $nleft(1-uright)^n-1mathbf 1_(0,1)(u)$. As a consequence, $mathbb Eleft[T_nright]=sum_i=1^n1/(i+1)$ and it would suffices to prove that
              $$lim_nto +infty
              frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[left(sum_i=1^nM_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0.
              $$
              To this aim, we would like to show that
              $$tag1
              lim_nto +infty
              frac 1left(ln nright)^2sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0;
              $$
              $$tag2lim_nto +infty
              frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[ sum_1leqslant ilt jleqslant nM_iM_j-mathbb Eleft[M_iM_jright] right]=0.
              $$



              • Let us show (1). Using the expression for the density of $M_i$, we get
                $$
                mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=int_0^1u^2ileft(1-uright)^i-1mathrm du
                =int_0^1left(1-vright)^2iv^i-1mathrm dv=1-2fracii+1+fracii+2
                $$
                which can be simplified as
                $$
                mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=frac 2i+1-frac 2i+2,
                $$
                hence $$sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=1-frac2n+2-sum_i=1^nfrac 1(i+1)^2leqslant 1,
                $$
                from which (1) follows.


              • Let us look at (2). Observe that (2) can be rewritten as
                $$
                lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2 sum_i=1^n sum_j=1^n-ic_i,j =0,
                $$
                where $c_i,j:=mathbb Eleft[M_iM_i+jright]-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]mathbb Eleft[M_i+jright] $.
                Observing that $M_i+j$ has the same law as $minleftM_i,M'_jright$, where $M'_j$ has the same law as $M_j$ and is independent of $M_i$, we get
                $$
                c_i,j=int_0^1int_0^1uminleftu,vrightileft(1-uright)^i-1jleft(1-vright)^j-1mathrm dumathrm dv-frac 1left(i+1right)left(j+1right).
                $$
                A computation shows that
                $$
                c_i,j=frac 1j+1left(fracii+j+2-fracii+j+1right),
                $$
                which can be transformed as
                $$
                c_i,j=frac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1+frac 1(j+1)(i+j+2).
                $$
                For the first two terms, we switch the sum and use telescoping in $i$ to find
                $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1=sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1fracn-j+1n+2-frac 1j+1frac2j+3
                $$
                hence
                $$
                leftlvert sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1rightrvertleqslant 3sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1
                $$
                which is negligible with respect to $(ln n)^2$.
                For the last term, it behaves like
                $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=j+1^nfrac 1ij=sum_i=2^nfrac 1i sum_j=1^i-1frac 1j,$$
                which is exactly the failure of (2), since the latter quantity is of order $(ln n)^2$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                This is not the answer; it is just to save the time of a person who would like to try the approach with correlation. It turns out that the sequence we want to prove the convergence in probability is bounded in $mathbb L^2$ hence uniformly integrable, hence it should also converge in $mathbb L^1$ to $0$.



                First let us extract some useful information from this thread: the expectation of $M_n$ is $1/(n+1)$ and its density is $nleft(1-uright)^n-1mathbf 1_(0,1)(u)$. As a consequence, $mathbb Eleft[T_nright]=sum_i=1^n1/(i+1)$ and it would suffices to prove that
                $$lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[left(sum_i=1^nM_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0.
                $$
                To this aim, we would like to show that
                $$tag1
                lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0;
                $$
                $$tag2lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[ sum_1leqslant ilt jleqslant nM_iM_j-mathbb Eleft[M_iM_jright] right]=0.
                $$



                • Let us show (1). Using the expression for the density of $M_i$, we get
                  $$
                  mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=int_0^1u^2ileft(1-uright)^i-1mathrm du
                  =int_0^1left(1-vright)^2iv^i-1mathrm dv=1-2fracii+1+fracii+2
                  $$
                  which can be simplified as
                  $$
                  mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=frac 2i+1-frac 2i+2,
                  $$
                  hence $$sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=1-frac2n+2-sum_i=1^nfrac 1(i+1)^2leqslant 1,
                  $$
                  from which (1) follows.


                • Let us look at (2). Observe that (2) can be rewritten as
                  $$
                  lim_nto +infty
                  frac 1left(ln nright)^2 sum_i=1^n sum_j=1^n-ic_i,j =0,
                  $$
                  where $c_i,j:=mathbb Eleft[M_iM_i+jright]-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]mathbb Eleft[M_i+jright] $.
                  Observing that $M_i+j$ has the same law as $minleftM_i,M'_jright$, where $M'_j$ has the same law as $M_j$ and is independent of $M_i$, we get
                  $$
                  c_i,j=int_0^1int_0^1uminleftu,vrightileft(1-uright)^i-1jleft(1-vright)^j-1mathrm dumathrm dv-frac 1left(i+1right)left(j+1right).
                  $$
                  A computation shows that
                  $$
                  c_i,j=frac 1j+1left(fracii+j+2-fracii+j+1right),
                  $$
                  which can be transformed as
                  $$
                  c_i,j=frac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1+frac 1(j+1)(i+j+2).
                  $$
                  For the first two terms, we switch the sum and use telescoping in $i$ to find
                  $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1=sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1fracn-j+1n+2-frac 1j+1frac2j+3
                  $$
                  hence
                  $$
                  leftlvert sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1rightrvertleqslant 3sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1
                  $$
                  which is negligible with respect to $(ln n)^2$.
                  For the last term, it behaves like
                  $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=j+1^nfrac 1ij=sum_i=2^nfrac 1i sum_j=1^i-1frac 1j,$$
                  which is exactly the failure of (2), since the latter quantity is of order $(ln n)^2$.






                share|cite|improve this answer















                This is not the answer; it is just to save the time of a person who would like to try the approach with correlation. It turns out that the sequence we want to prove the convergence in probability is bounded in $mathbb L^2$ hence uniformly integrable, hence it should also converge in $mathbb L^1$ to $0$.



                First let us extract some useful information from this thread: the expectation of $M_n$ is $1/(n+1)$ and its density is $nleft(1-uright)^n-1mathbf 1_(0,1)(u)$. As a consequence, $mathbb Eleft[T_nright]=sum_i=1^n1/(i+1)$ and it would suffices to prove that
                $$lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[left(sum_i=1^nM_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0.
                $$
                To this aim, we would like to show that
                $$tag1
                lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=0;
                $$
                $$tag2lim_nto +infty
                frac 1left(ln nright)^2mathbb Eleft[ sum_1leqslant ilt jleqslant nM_iM_j-mathbb Eleft[M_iM_jright] right]=0.
                $$



                • Let us show (1). Using the expression for the density of $M_i$, we get
                  $$
                  mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=int_0^1u^2ileft(1-uright)^i-1mathrm du
                  =int_0^1left(1-vright)^2iv^i-1mathrm dv=1-2fracii+1+fracii+2
                  $$
                  which can be simplified as
                  $$
                  mathbb Eleft[M_i^2right]=frac 2i+1-frac 2i+2,
                  $$
                  hence $$sum_i=1^nmathbb Eleft[left(M_i-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]right)^2right]=1-frac2n+2-sum_i=1^nfrac 1(i+1)^2leqslant 1,
                  $$
                  from which (1) follows.


                • Let us look at (2). Observe that (2) can be rewritten as
                  $$
                  lim_nto +infty
                  frac 1left(ln nright)^2 sum_i=1^n sum_j=1^n-ic_i,j =0,
                  $$
                  where $c_i,j:=mathbb Eleft[M_iM_i+jright]-mathbb Eleft[M_iright]mathbb Eleft[M_i+jright] $.
                  Observing that $M_i+j$ has the same law as $minleftM_i,M'_jright$, where $M'_j$ has the same law as $M_j$ and is independent of $M_i$, we get
                  $$
                  c_i,j=int_0^1int_0^1uminleftu,vrightileft(1-uright)^i-1jleft(1-vright)^j-1mathrm dumathrm dv-frac 1left(i+1right)left(j+1right).
                  $$
                  A computation shows that
                  $$
                  c_i,j=frac 1j+1left(fracii+j+2-fracii+j+1right),
                  $$
                  which can be transformed as
                  $$
                  c_i,j=frac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1+frac 1(j+1)(i+j+2).
                  $$
                  For the first two terms, we switch the sum and use telescoping in $i$ to find
                  $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1=sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1fracn-j+1n+2-frac 1j+1frac2j+3
                  $$
                  hence
                  $$
                  leftlvert sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=1^n-jfrac 1j+1fraci+1i+j+2-frac 1j+1fracii+j+1rightrvertleqslant 3sum_j=1^n-1frac 1j+1
                  $$
                  which is negligible with respect to $(ln n)^2$.
                  For the last term, it behaves like
                  $$sum_j=1^n-1sum_i=j+1^nfrac 1ij=sum_i=2^nfrac 1i sum_j=1^i-1frac 1j,$$
                  which is exactly the failure of (2), since the latter quantity is of order $(ln n)^2$.







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                share|cite|improve this answer



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                edited Jul 31 at 12:52


























                answered Jul 31 at 10:52









                Davide Giraudo

                121k15146249




                121k15146249






















                     

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