On the relation between traces and characteristic polynomials

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I know that the trace of an $n times n$ matrix is invariant and results from adding the diagonal entries. I also know that the characteristic polynomial of that very same matrix is also invariant, and somehow that invariance seems more primitive than that of the trace.



  1. What is the relation between those two invariances?


  2. Does the trace derive from a primordial invariant represented by the underlying polynomial?


  3. How exactly can that relation be characterized, both logically and numerically? I heard sometime that the trace merely multiplies the polynomial by some factor ($times (n-1)$) or something along those lines, I really do not recall.


Could you please elaborate on that? Thanks in advance.







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  • The trace is, up to sign, a coefficient of the characteristic polynomial. The coefficients of the characteristic polynomial, up to sign, are the traces of the action of the matrix on the exterior powers of the underlying vector space.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 19 at 9:23














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I know that the trace of an $n times n$ matrix is invariant and results from adding the diagonal entries. I also know that the characteristic polynomial of that very same matrix is also invariant, and somehow that invariance seems more primitive than that of the trace.



  1. What is the relation between those two invariances?


  2. Does the trace derive from a primordial invariant represented by the underlying polynomial?


  3. How exactly can that relation be characterized, both logically and numerically? I heard sometime that the trace merely multiplies the polynomial by some factor ($times (n-1)$) or something along those lines, I really do not recall.


Could you please elaborate on that? Thanks in advance.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • The trace is, up to sign, a coefficient of the characteristic polynomial. The coefficients of the characteristic polynomial, up to sign, are the traces of the action of the matrix on the exterior powers of the underlying vector space.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 19 at 9:23












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I know that the trace of an $n times n$ matrix is invariant and results from adding the diagonal entries. I also know that the characteristic polynomial of that very same matrix is also invariant, and somehow that invariance seems more primitive than that of the trace.



  1. What is the relation between those two invariances?


  2. Does the trace derive from a primordial invariant represented by the underlying polynomial?


  3. How exactly can that relation be characterized, both logically and numerically? I heard sometime that the trace merely multiplies the polynomial by some factor ($times (n-1)$) or something along those lines, I really do not recall.


Could you please elaborate on that? Thanks in advance.







share|cite|improve this question













I know that the trace of an $n times n$ matrix is invariant and results from adding the diagonal entries. I also know that the characteristic polynomial of that very same matrix is also invariant, and somehow that invariance seems more primitive than that of the trace.



  1. What is the relation between those two invariances?


  2. Does the trace derive from a primordial invariant represented by the underlying polynomial?


  3. How exactly can that relation be characterized, both logically and numerically? I heard sometime that the trace merely multiplies the polynomial by some factor ($times (n-1)$) or something along those lines, I really do not recall.


Could you please elaborate on that? Thanks in advance.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 19 at 15:01









Rodrigo de Azevedo

12.6k41751




12.6k41751









asked Jul 19 at 9:20









Javier Arias

876617




876617











  • The trace is, up to sign, a coefficient of the characteristic polynomial. The coefficients of the characteristic polynomial, up to sign, are the traces of the action of the matrix on the exterior powers of the underlying vector space.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 19 at 9:23
















  • The trace is, up to sign, a coefficient of the characteristic polynomial. The coefficients of the characteristic polynomial, up to sign, are the traces of the action of the matrix on the exterior powers of the underlying vector space.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 19 at 9:23















The trace is, up to sign, a coefficient of the characteristic polynomial. The coefficients of the characteristic polynomial, up to sign, are the traces of the action of the matrix on the exterior powers of the underlying vector space.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 19 at 9:23




The trace is, up to sign, a coefficient of the characteristic polynomial. The coefficients of the characteristic polynomial, up to sign, are the traces of the action of the matrix on the exterior powers of the underlying vector space.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 19 at 9:23










1 Answer
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Assuming that you define the characteristic polynomial $P(lambda)$ of the matrix $A$ as $P(lambda)=det(A-lambdaoperatornameId_n)$, then $operatornametrA$ is the coefficient of $lambda^n-1$ in $P(lambda)$ times $(-1)^n-1$. Therefore, the invariance of $P(lambda)$ implies the invariance of $operatornametrA$.






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  • Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:52










  • I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 9:55










  • so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:59










  • I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 10:01










  • i mean the characteristic polynomial
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 10:03










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote













Assuming that you define the characteristic polynomial $P(lambda)$ of the matrix $A$ as $P(lambda)=det(A-lambdaoperatornameId_n)$, then $operatornametrA$ is the coefficient of $lambda^n-1$ in $P(lambda)$ times $(-1)^n-1$. Therefore, the invariance of $P(lambda)$ implies the invariance of $operatornametrA$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:52










  • I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 9:55










  • so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:59










  • I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 10:01










  • i mean the characteristic polynomial
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 10:03














up vote
0
down vote













Assuming that you define the characteristic polynomial $P(lambda)$ of the matrix $A$ as $P(lambda)=det(A-lambdaoperatornameId_n)$, then $operatornametrA$ is the coefficient of $lambda^n-1$ in $P(lambda)$ times $(-1)^n-1$. Therefore, the invariance of $P(lambda)$ implies the invariance of $operatornametrA$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:52










  • I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 9:55










  • so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:59










  • I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 10:01










  • i mean the characteristic polynomial
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 10:03












up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Assuming that you define the characteristic polynomial $P(lambda)$ of the matrix $A$ as $P(lambda)=det(A-lambdaoperatornameId_n)$, then $operatornametrA$ is the coefficient of $lambda^n-1$ in $P(lambda)$ times $(-1)^n-1$. Therefore, the invariance of $P(lambda)$ implies the invariance of $operatornametrA$.






share|cite|improve this answer















Assuming that you define the characteristic polynomial $P(lambda)$ of the matrix $A$ as $P(lambda)=det(A-lambdaoperatornameId_n)$, then $operatornametrA$ is the coefficient of $lambda^n-1$ in $P(lambda)$ times $(-1)^n-1$. Therefore, the invariance of $P(lambda)$ implies the invariance of $operatornametrA$.







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 19 at 9:34


























answered Jul 19 at 9:28









José Carlos Santos

114k1698177




114k1698177











  • Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:52










  • I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 9:55










  • so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:59










  • I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 10:01










  • i mean the characteristic polynomial
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 10:03
















  • Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:52










  • I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 9:55










  • so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 9:59










  • I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 19 at 10:01










  • i mean the characteristic polynomial
    – Javier Arias
    Jul 19 at 10:03















Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
– Javier Arias
Jul 19 at 9:52




Does that mean that the primary invariance, so to speak, is that of the polynomial, and that of the trace is derived from it?
– Javier Arias
Jul 19 at 9:52












I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 19 at 9:55




I wouldn't say that, since the invariance of the trace can be proved without even knowing what the characteristic polynomial is or what a determinant is. It follows from the fact that $operatornametr(AB)=operatornametr(BA)$.
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 19 at 9:55












so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
– Javier Arias
Jul 19 at 9:59




so those two invariances are orthogonal?? It does not seem to me. I mean, the invariance of the trace may be proved (logically) without knowing the characteristic polynomial, but, as far as I understand it, it cannot be numerically determined without the characteristic being known? Correct? If that is the case, it seems like there is one primary and one secondary invariance there, so to speak.
– Javier Arias
Jul 19 at 9:59












I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 19 at 10:01




I cannot answer your question, since I don't understand it. What do you by “characteristic”?
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 19 at 10:01












i mean the characteristic polynomial
– Javier Arias
Jul 19 at 10:03




i mean the characteristic polynomial
– Javier Arias
Jul 19 at 10:03












 

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