$operatornametrace(B)>0$, and $C$ is a Hermitian positive definite, is $operatornametrace(BC)geq 0$?

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Let $B$ is a Hermitian matrix such that $operatornametrace(B)>0$ (but $B$ is "not" positive definite), and $C$ is a Hermitian positive definite matrix. Can we conclude $operatornametrace(BC)geq 0$? I tried two approaches, but neither worked.



1) We can write
$$operatornametrace(BC)=operatornametrace(C^1/2BC^1/2)$$
where $C^1/2$ is positive definite, and thus $C^1/2BC^1/2$ is congruent with $BC$. But congruence just preserves the number of positive/negative/zero eigenvalues, and doesn't say anything about the magnitude, so apparently this doesn't say anything about the sign of $operatornametrace(BC)$.



2) We can also write eigenvalue decomposition of $B$ and $C$:
$$B=sum_i beta_ib_ib_i^T quadtextandquad C=sum_i gamma_ic_ic_i^T$$
Hence,
$$operatornametrace(BC)=sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2$$
We know $gamma_j>0$ (from positive-definiteness of $C$) and $|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$, but for $beta_i$, we only know $sum_ibeta_i>0$. So I don't know how we can conclude $sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$?







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    Let $B$ is a Hermitian matrix such that $operatornametrace(B)>0$ (but $B$ is "not" positive definite), and $C$ is a Hermitian positive definite matrix. Can we conclude $operatornametrace(BC)geq 0$? I tried two approaches, but neither worked.



    1) We can write
    $$operatornametrace(BC)=operatornametrace(C^1/2BC^1/2)$$
    where $C^1/2$ is positive definite, and thus $C^1/2BC^1/2$ is congruent with $BC$. But congruence just preserves the number of positive/negative/zero eigenvalues, and doesn't say anything about the magnitude, so apparently this doesn't say anything about the sign of $operatornametrace(BC)$.



    2) We can also write eigenvalue decomposition of $B$ and $C$:
    $$B=sum_i beta_ib_ib_i^T quadtextandquad C=sum_i gamma_ic_ic_i^T$$
    Hence,
    $$operatornametrace(BC)=sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2$$
    We know $gamma_j>0$ (from positive-definiteness of $C$) and $|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$, but for $beta_i$, we only know $sum_ibeta_i>0$. So I don't know how we can conclude $sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $B$ is a Hermitian matrix such that $operatornametrace(B)>0$ (but $B$ is "not" positive definite), and $C$ is a Hermitian positive definite matrix. Can we conclude $operatornametrace(BC)geq 0$? I tried two approaches, but neither worked.



      1) We can write
      $$operatornametrace(BC)=operatornametrace(C^1/2BC^1/2)$$
      where $C^1/2$ is positive definite, and thus $C^1/2BC^1/2$ is congruent with $BC$. But congruence just preserves the number of positive/negative/zero eigenvalues, and doesn't say anything about the magnitude, so apparently this doesn't say anything about the sign of $operatornametrace(BC)$.



      2) We can also write eigenvalue decomposition of $B$ and $C$:
      $$B=sum_i beta_ib_ib_i^T quadtextandquad C=sum_i gamma_ic_ic_i^T$$
      Hence,
      $$operatornametrace(BC)=sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2$$
      We know $gamma_j>0$ (from positive-definiteness of $C$) and $|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$, but for $beta_i$, we only know $sum_ibeta_i>0$. So I don't know how we can conclude $sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$?







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $B$ is a Hermitian matrix such that $operatornametrace(B)>0$ (but $B$ is "not" positive definite), and $C$ is a Hermitian positive definite matrix. Can we conclude $operatornametrace(BC)geq 0$? I tried two approaches, but neither worked.



      1) We can write
      $$operatornametrace(BC)=operatornametrace(C^1/2BC^1/2)$$
      where $C^1/2$ is positive definite, and thus $C^1/2BC^1/2$ is congruent with $BC$. But congruence just preserves the number of positive/negative/zero eigenvalues, and doesn't say anything about the magnitude, so apparently this doesn't say anything about the sign of $operatornametrace(BC)$.



      2) We can also write eigenvalue decomposition of $B$ and $C$:
      $$B=sum_i beta_ib_ib_i^T quadtextandquad C=sum_i gamma_ic_ic_i^T$$
      Hence,
      $$operatornametrace(BC)=sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2$$
      We know $gamma_j>0$ (from positive-definiteness of $C$) and $|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$, but for $beta_i$, we only know $sum_ibeta_i>0$. So I don't know how we can conclude $sum_isum_jbeta_igamma_j|b_i^Ta_j|^2geq 0$?









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      asked Jul 19 at 15:01









      Mah

      545312




      545312




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Not necessarily. For instance, consider
          $$
          B = pmatrix2&0\0&-1, quad C = pmatrix1&0\0&3
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 19 at 15:07










          • That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
            – Mah
            Jul 19 at 15:10










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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Not necessarily. For instance, consider
          $$
          B = pmatrix2&0\0&-1, quad C = pmatrix1&0\0&3
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 19 at 15:07










          • That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
            – Mah
            Jul 19 at 15:10














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Not necessarily. For instance, consider
          $$
          B = pmatrix2&0\0&-1, quad C = pmatrix1&0\0&3
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 19 at 15:07










          • That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
            – Mah
            Jul 19 at 15:10












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Not necessarily. For instance, consider
          $$
          B = pmatrix2&0\0&-1, quad C = pmatrix1&0\0&3
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Not necessarily. For instance, consider
          $$
          B = pmatrix2&0\0&-1, quad C = pmatrix1&0\0&3
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 19 at 15:03









          Omnomnomnom

          121k784170




          121k784170











          • You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 19 at 15:07










          • That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
            – Mah
            Jul 19 at 15:10
















          • You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
            – Omnomnomnom
            Jul 19 at 15:07










          • That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
            – Mah
            Jul 19 at 15:10















          You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
          – Omnomnomnom
          Jul 19 at 15:07




          You might be interested in the following fact: if $B$ is Hermitian, then we can only have $ operatornametrace(BC) geq 0 $ for all positive (semi)definite $C$ if $B$ is itself positive semidefinite.
          – Omnomnomnom
          Jul 19 at 15:07












          That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
          – Mah
          Jul 19 at 15:10




          That is interesting fact, I didn't know about the "only" part of it.
          – Mah
          Jul 19 at 15:10












           

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